– Actual Questions & Answers (GCN) 100%
Guarantee Pass
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a
glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 18 mL/min. The nurse
understands that this indicates:
A) Stage 1 CKD
B) Stage 2 CKD
C) Stage 3 CKD
D) Stage 4 CKD
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: CKD staging: Stage 1: GFR ≥90; Stage 2: 60-89;
Stage 3: 30-59; Stage 4: 15-29; Stage 5: <15. A GFR of 18
mL/min indicates severe impairment (Stage 4) .
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a
potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change should
the nurse expect?
A) U waves
B) Peaked T waves
,C) ST segment depression
D) Prolonged PR interval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5) causes tall, peaked T
waves. U waves are seen in hypokalemia. As potassium
increases, QRS widens and P waves may disappear .
3. A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is
scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value
requires immediate intervention before dialysis?
A) Potassium 6.5 mEq/L
B) Sodium 135 mEq/L
C) Calcium 8.5 mg/dL
D) Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5) is life-threatening and
requires urgent dialysis. Other values are within or near
normal ranges .
4. A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis has cloudy
effluent. The nurse suspects:
, A) Peritonitis
B) Normal finding
C) Hemorrhage
D) Catheter obstruction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cloudy effluent is the classic sign of peritonitis,
a serious complication. Notify provider immediately .
5. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a urine
output of 20 mL/hour. Which phase of AKI is this?
A) Oliguric phase
B) Diuretic phase
C) Recovery phase
D) Initiation phase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oliguric phase is defined by urine output <400
mL/day (or <30 mL/hour). This phase lasts 1-3 weeks .
6. A patient with CKD has a calcium level of 7.2 mg/dL.
Which complication is associated with hypocalcemia?
A) Tetany