KAPLAN PREDICTOR 2026 / LATEST KAPLAN
PREDICTOR D ACTUAL EXAM 2026 ACCURATE TEST
EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED
VERSION 2026 EDITION | GUARANTEED PASS A+ |
FULL REVISED EXAM
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a serum
potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B) Prepare the client for emergency hemodialysis
C) Place the client on a cardiac monitor
D) Administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 6.5) can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The
priority is to monitor cardiac status first. Insulin/dextrose, kayexalate, and dialysis
are treatments but follow immediate cardiac monitoring.
Question 2
A client who had a stroke is having difficulty swallowing. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A) Consult a speech-language pathologist
B) Place the client on NPO status
C) Offer thickened liquids
D) Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysphagia after stroke increases aspiration risk. The priority is to
protect the airway by placing the client NPO until a formal swallowing evaluation
is completed.
,Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day 1 after a total hip replacement.
Which finding requires immediate action?
A) Pain score of 6 out of 10
B) Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
C) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D) Urinary output of 40 mL/hour
Answer: C
Rationale: Post-op hypoxemia after hip surgery may indicate fat embolism
syndrome or pulmonary embolism. ABCs always priority. The other findings are
expected or non-critical.
Question 4
A client with cirrhosis has an ammonia level of 120 mcg/dL. Which assessment
finding most concerns the nurse?
A) Asterixis
B) Spider angiomas
C) Palmar erythema
D) Peripheral edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis (liver flap) is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy due to
hyperammonemia, indicating worsening neurological status. The other findings are
chronic signs of liver disease but not acute neurological decline.
Question 5
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task
is appropriate for the UAP to perform?
A) Assess a client's post-op incision
B) Teach a client how to use an inhaler
C) Measure a client's urine output
D) Change a central line dressing
,Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform basic care tasks like measuring I&O. Assessment,
teaching, and sterile procedures require licensed nursing staff.
Question 6
A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding
indicates toxicity?
A) Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
B) Urinary output of 35 mL/hour
C) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression (less than 12/min),
loss of DTRs, and decreased urine output. RR of 10 is a critical finding requiring
calcium gluconate and holding the infusion.
Question 7
A client with major burns has a nasogastric tube placed. The nurse understands the
primary purpose is to:
A) Prevent aspiration
B) Decrease gastric acid production
C) Prevent Curling's ulcer
D) Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Major burns cause decreased blood flow to the GI tract, leading to
Curling's (stress) ulcers. NG tube decompresses the stomach and reduces ulcer risk.
Question 8
A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. Which client statement indicates
understanding?
A) "My urine and tears may turn orange-red."
B) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
, C) "I will stop the medication once my cough goes away."
D) "I need to avoid all dairy products."
Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids. It
should be taken with food if GI upset occurs, and full course is needed. Dairy is
not restricted.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after a pneumothorax. The chest
tube becomes disconnected from the drainage system. What is the priority action?
A) Clamp the chest tube
B) Submerge the end in sterile water
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Apply an occlusive dressing
Answer: B
Rationale: A disconnected chest tube allows air to enter the pleural space,
worsening a pneumothorax. Submerging the open end in sterile water creates a
temporary water seal to prevent air re-entry.
Question 10
A postpartum client receiving IV oxytocin reports a headache and blurred vision.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Blood pressure 160/110 mm Hg
B) Uterine fundus firm at umbilicus
C) Moderate lochia rubra
D) Pulse rate 88 beats/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision with severe hypertension suggest
preeclampsia or eclampsia. Oxytocin may worsen fluid retention. Priority is to
notify provider and check for magnesium sulfate need.
PREDICTOR D ACTUAL EXAM 2026 ACCURATE TEST
EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED
VERSION 2026 EDITION | GUARANTEED PASS A+ |
FULL REVISED EXAM
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a serum
potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B) Prepare the client for emergency hemodialysis
C) Place the client on a cardiac monitor
D) Administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 6.5) can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The
priority is to monitor cardiac status first. Insulin/dextrose, kayexalate, and dialysis
are treatments but follow immediate cardiac monitoring.
Question 2
A client who had a stroke is having difficulty swallowing. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A) Consult a speech-language pathologist
B) Place the client on NPO status
C) Offer thickened liquids
D) Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysphagia after stroke increases aspiration risk. The priority is to
protect the airway by placing the client NPO until a formal swallowing evaluation
is completed.
,Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day 1 after a total hip replacement.
Which finding requires immediate action?
A) Pain score of 6 out of 10
B) Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
C) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D) Urinary output of 40 mL/hour
Answer: C
Rationale: Post-op hypoxemia after hip surgery may indicate fat embolism
syndrome or pulmonary embolism. ABCs always priority. The other findings are
expected or non-critical.
Question 4
A client with cirrhosis has an ammonia level of 120 mcg/dL. Which assessment
finding most concerns the nurse?
A) Asterixis
B) Spider angiomas
C) Palmar erythema
D) Peripheral edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis (liver flap) is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy due to
hyperammonemia, indicating worsening neurological status. The other findings are
chronic signs of liver disease but not acute neurological decline.
Question 5
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task
is appropriate for the UAP to perform?
A) Assess a client's post-op incision
B) Teach a client how to use an inhaler
C) Measure a client's urine output
D) Change a central line dressing
,Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform basic care tasks like measuring I&O. Assessment,
teaching, and sterile procedures require licensed nursing staff.
Question 6
A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding
indicates toxicity?
A) Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
B) Urinary output of 35 mL/hour
C) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes respiratory depression (less than 12/min),
loss of DTRs, and decreased urine output. RR of 10 is a critical finding requiring
calcium gluconate and holding the infusion.
Question 7
A client with major burns has a nasogastric tube placed. The nurse understands the
primary purpose is to:
A) Prevent aspiration
B) Decrease gastric acid production
C) Prevent Curling's ulcer
D) Monitor for gastrointestinal bleeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Major burns cause decreased blood flow to the GI tract, leading to
Curling's (stress) ulcers. NG tube decompresses the stomach and reduces ulcer risk.
Question 8
A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. Which client statement indicates
understanding?
A) "My urine and tears may turn orange-red."
B) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
, C) "I will stop the medication once my cough goes away."
D) "I need to avoid all dairy products."
Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids. It
should be taken with food if GI upset occurs, and full course is needed. Dairy is
not restricted.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after a pneumothorax. The chest
tube becomes disconnected from the drainage system. What is the priority action?
A) Clamp the chest tube
B) Submerge the end in sterile water
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Apply an occlusive dressing
Answer: B
Rationale: A disconnected chest tube allows air to enter the pleural space,
worsening a pneumothorax. Submerging the open end in sterile water creates a
temporary water seal to prevent air re-entry.
Question 10
A postpartum client receiving IV oxytocin reports a headache and blurred vision.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Blood pressure 160/110 mm Hg
B) Uterine fundus firm at umbilicus
C) Moderate lochia rubra
D) Pulse rate 88 beats/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision with severe hypertension suggest
preeclampsia or eclampsia. Oxytocin may worsen fluid retention. Priority is to
notify provider and check for magnesium sulfate need.
