West Coast EMT Block Exam #3 – Complete
Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales Latest 2025–2026 Update
| Grade A+
Question 1
You arrive at the scene of a two-vehicle collision. Which action should be
completed FIRST?
A. Begin patient assessment
B. Request additional ambulances
C. Ensure scene safety
D. Obtain patient history
Answer: C. Ensure scene safety
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. EMTs must protect themselves,
their partners, patients, and bystanders before initiating care. The other actions
occur only after hazards have been identified and controlled.
Question 2
What is the primary purpose of the primary assessment in patient care?
A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions
C. Determine the patient's transport destination
D. Gather information for the hospital report
Answer: B. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions
Rationale: The primary purpose of the primary assessment is to identify and
manage life-threatening conditions. The primary assessment follows the ABCs
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and focuses on immediate threats to life.
,Question 3
During a primary assessment, an unresponsive patient is found to have no pulse.
What should you do NEXT?
A. Obtain a SAMPLE history
B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Begin CPR
D. Check blood glucose
Answer: C. Begin CPR
Rationale: Cardiac arrest requires immediate high-quality CPR. Delaying
compressions to gather history or perform secondary procedures decreases survival
chances. CPR should be initiated immediately.
Question 4
What does the acronym AVPU stand for in assessing a patient's level of
consciousness?
A. Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive
B. Alert, Verbal response, Painful response, Unresponsive
C. Airway, Ventilation, Perfusion, Urgency
D. Assessment, Vital signs, Primary survey, Unconscious
Answer: B. Alert, Verbal response, Painful response, Unresponsive
Rationale: AVPU stands for Alert, Verbal response, Painful response,
Unresponsive. This scale is used to quickly assess a patient's level of consciousness
during the primary assessment.
Question 5
What is the acronym SAMPLE used for in patient assessment?
A. Assessing scene safety
B. Gathering a patient's medical history
C. Performing a primary survey
D. Documenting vital signs
Answer: B. Gathering a patient's medical history
,Rationale: SAMPLE is used to gather a patient's medical history:
Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake,
and Events leading to the present illness.
Question 6
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) used for?
A. Measuring blood pressure
B. Assessing a patient's level of consciousness based on eye, verbal, and motor
responses
C. Evaluating cardiac function
D. Determining respiratory rate
Answer: B. Assessing a patient's level of consciousness based on eye, verbal,
and motor responses
Rationale: The GCS is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness based on
eye, verbal, and motor responses. Scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully
alert).
Question 7
When assessing a patient's airway, what is the FIRST thing an EMT should check
for?
A. The presence of breath sounds
B. If the airway is open and clear of obstructions
C. The patient's respiratory rate
D. The patient's oxygen saturation
Answer: B. If the airway is open and clear of obstructions
Rationale: The first thing to check is if the airway is open and clear of
obstructions. Airway patency is the priority in the ABCs.
Question 8
How can an EMT assess for circulation during the primary assessment?
, A. By asking the patient about chest pain
B. By checking the patient's pulse, skin color, temperature, and capillary refill
time
C. By auscultating breath sounds
D. By measuring blood glucose
Answer: B. By checking the patient's pulse, skin color, temperature, and
capillary refill time
Rationale: An EMT can assess for circulation by checking the patient's pulse, skin
color, temperature, and capillary refill time. These indicators help determine
perfusion status.
Question 9
A responsive adult reports chest discomfort and shortness of breath. Which
assessment finding is MOST concerning?
A. Blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg
B. Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
D. Mild anxiety
Answer: B. Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin
Rationale: Pale, cool, and diaphoretic skin may indicate poor perfusion and a
potentially serious cardiac event. The other findings are less immediately alarming.
Question 10
What is the correct procedure for performing chest compressions during CPR?
A. Compress at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute at a depth of 1.5 inches
B. Compress at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute at a depth of at
least 2 inches for adults
C. Compress at a rate of 120-140 compressions per minute at a depth of 3 inches
D. Compress at a rate of 60-80 compressions per minute at a depth of 2.5 inches
Answer: B. Compress at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute at a depth
of at least 2 inches for adults
Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales Latest 2025–2026 Update
| Grade A+
Question 1
You arrive at the scene of a two-vehicle collision. Which action should be
completed FIRST?
A. Begin patient assessment
B. Request additional ambulances
C. Ensure scene safety
D. Obtain patient history
Answer: C. Ensure scene safety
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. EMTs must protect themselves,
their partners, patients, and bystanders before initiating care. The other actions
occur only after hazards have been identified and controlled.
Question 2
What is the primary purpose of the primary assessment in patient care?
A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions
C. Determine the patient's transport destination
D. Gather information for the hospital report
Answer: B. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions
Rationale: The primary purpose of the primary assessment is to identify and
manage life-threatening conditions. The primary assessment follows the ABCs
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and focuses on immediate threats to life.
,Question 3
During a primary assessment, an unresponsive patient is found to have no pulse.
What should you do NEXT?
A. Obtain a SAMPLE history
B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Begin CPR
D. Check blood glucose
Answer: C. Begin CPR
Rationale: Cardiac arrest requires immediate high-quality CPR. Delaying
compressions to gather history or perform secondary procedures decreases survival
chances. CPR should be initiated immediately.
Question 4
What does the acronym AVPU stand for in assessing a patient's level of
consciousness?
A. Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive
B. Alert, Verbal response, Painful response, Unresponsive
C. Airway, Ventilation, Perfusion, Urgency
D. Assessment, Vital signs, Primary survey, Unconscious
Answer: B. Alert, Verbal response, Painful response, Unresponsive
Rationale: AVPU stands for Alert, Verbal response, Painful response,
Unresponsive. This scale is used to quickly assess a patient's level of consciousness
during the primary assessment.
Question 5
What is the acronym SAMPLE used for in patient assessment?
A. Assessing scene safety
B. Gathering a patient's medical history
C. Performing a primary survey
D. Documenting vital signs
Answer: B. Gathering a patient's medical history
,Rationale: SAMPLE is used to gather a patient's medical history:
Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake,
and Events leading to the present illness.
Question 6
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) used for?
A. Measuring blood pressure
B. Assessing a patient's level of consciousness based on eye, verbal, and motor
responses
C. Evaluating cardiac function
D. Determining respiratory rate
Answer: B. Assessing a patient's level of consciousness based on eye, verbal,
and motor responses
Rationale: The GCS is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness based on
eye, verbal, and motor responses. Scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully
alert).
Question 7
When assessing a patient's airway, what is the FIRST thing an EMT should check
for?
A. The presence of breath sounds
B. If the airway is open and clear of obstructions
C. The patient's respiratory rate
D. The patient's oxygen saturation
Answer: B. If the airway is open and clear of obstructions
Rationale: The first thing to check is if the airway is open and clear of
obstructions. Airway patency is the priority in the ABCs.
Question 8
How can an EMT assess for circulation during the primary assessment?
, A. By asking the patient about chest pain
B. By checking the patient's pulse, skin color, temperature, and capillary refill
time
C. By auscultating breath sounds
D. By measuring blood glucose
Answer: B. By checking the patient's pulse, skin color, temperature, and
capillary refill time
Rationale: An EMT can assess for circulation by checking the patient's pulse, skin
color, temperature, and capillary refill time. These indicators help determine
perfusion status.
Question 9
A responsive adult reports chest discomfort and shortness of breath. Which
assessment finding is MOST concerning?
A. Blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg
B. Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
D. Mild anxiety
Answer: B. Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin
Rationale: Pale, cool, and diaphoretic skin may indicate poor perfusion and a
potentially serious cardiac event. The other findings are less immediately alarming.
Question 10
What is the correct procedure for performing chest compressions during CPR?
A. Compress at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute at a depth of 1.5 inches
B. Compress at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute at a depth of at
least 2 inches for adults
C. Compress at a rate of 120-140 compressions per minute at a depth of 3 inches
D. Compress at a rate of 60-80 compressions per minute at a depth of 2.5 inches
Answer: B. Compress at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute at a depth
of at least 2 inches for adults
