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Exam 1 BURNS PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS.

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The nurse is caring for a client with an electrical burn. Which structures have the greatest risk for soft tissue injury? A. Fat, tendons, and bones B. Skin and hair C. Nerves, muscle, and blood vessels D. Skin, fat, and muscle - correct answers A Fat, tendon, and bone have the most resistance. The higher the resistance, the greater the heat generated by the current, thereby increasing the risk for soft tissue injury. B intermediate resistance C is low resistance D low to intermediate resistance Which laboratory result would be expected during the emergent phase of a burn injury? A. Glucose 100 mg/dL B. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L C. Sodium 142 mEq/L D. Albumin 4.2 gm/dL - correct answers A Glucose levels rise as a result of the stress response during the emergent phase. B,C,D are WNL K+ Na+ would be elevated, whereas albumin would be lowered during the emergent period due to increased permeability. An African American client is admitted with full thickness burns over 40% of his body. In addition to the CBC and complete metabolic panel, the physician is likely to request which additional blood-work? A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B. Indirect Coombs C. C reactive protein D. Sickledex - correct answers D Sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait are more prevalent in AA clients. The Sickledex test detects the presence of sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait. Trauma can trigger a sickle cell crisis, which would complicate the treatment of the client. A,C indicate inflammation B detects circulating antibodies against RBCs On the third post-burn day, the nurse finds that the clients hourly urine output is 26 ml. The nurse should continue to asses the client and notify the doctor for an order to: A. Decrease the rate of intravenous infusion B. Change the type of intravenous fluid being administered. C. Change the urinary catheter D. Increase the rate of the intravenous infusion - correct answers D The urinary output should be maintained betwee 30-50ml per hour. The first action should be to increase the IV rate to prevent increased acidosis. Answer A would lead to diminished output. B there is no indication that the type of IV fluid is not appropriate. C would not increase the client's output and place the client at greater risk for infection A Jewish client requires grafting to promote burn healing. Which graft is most likely to be unacceptable to the client? A. Isograft B. Autograft C. Homograft D. Xenograft - correct answers D Xenografts are taken from nonhuman sources. Most common porcine, or pigskin, which would be offensive to both Jewish and Muslims. Answer A refers to a graft taken from and indentical twin. B refers to a graft taken from the client's own skin. C refers to a graft taken from a cadaver. During the rehabilitative phase, the clients burns become infected with pseudomonas. The topical dressing most likely to be ordered for the client is: A. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) B. Povodine (Betadine) C. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) D. Silver nitrate - correct answers C Sulfamylon is effective in treating wounds infected with pseudomonas. The client should receive pain medication prior to dressing changes because the medication produces a burning sensation when applied to the wound. A,B,D are used in the treatment of burns but are not effective against pseudomonas infections. The physician has prescribed Protonix (pantoprazole) for a client with burns. The nurse should recognizes the the medication will help prevent the development of what: A. Curling's ulcer B. Myoglobinuria C. Hyperkalemia D. Paralytic ileus - correct answers A Curling's ulcer, a stress ulcer, is a common occurence in clients with burns. Protonix, a proton pump inhibitor, is effective in preventing ulcer formation. The nurse has just completed the dressing change for a client with burns to the lower legs and ankles. The nurse should place the client's ankles in which position? A. Internal rotation B. Abduction C. Dorsiflexion D. Hyperextention - correct answers C Placing the ankles in dorsiflexed position helps prevent contractures. A,B,D lead to contractures that may require surgical intervention.

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Exam 1 BURNS PRACTICE TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
PASS.

The nurse is caring for a client with an electrical burn. Which structures have the greatest risk for soft
tissue injury?

A. Fat, tendons, and bones

B. Skin and hair

C. Nerves, muscle, and blood vessels

D. Skin, fat, and muscle - correct answers A

Fat, tendon, and bone have the most resistance. The higher the resistance, the greater the heat
generated by the current, thereby increasing the risk for soft tissue injury. B intermediate resistance C is
low resistance D low to intermediate resistance



Which laboratory result would be expected during the emergent phase of a burn injury?

A. Glucose 100 mg/dL

B. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L

C. Sodium 142 mEq/L

D. Albumin 4.2 gm/dL - correct answers A

Glucose levels rise as a result of the stress response during the emergent phase. B,C,D are WNL K+ Na+
would be elevated, whereas albumin would be lowered during the emergent period due to increased
permeability.



An African American client is admitted with full thickness burns over 40% of his body. In addition to the
CBC and complete metabolic panel, the physician is likely to request which additional blood-work?

A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

B. Indirect Coombs

C. C reactive protein

D. Sickledex - correct answers D

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