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Fall Semester 2026–2027 NURS240 Maternal-Newborn Nursing Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers | Maternal and Newborn Nursing Study Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Exam Prep Test Bank, Pregnancy Care, Antepartum Nursing, Labor and Delivery

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Master the essential concepts of maternal and newborn nursing with this comprehensive NURS240 Maternal-Newborn Nursing study resource developed for the Fall Semester 2026–2027. Featuring over 190 exam-style questions and answers, this guide is designed to support nursing students through focused preparation and structured revision of key maternity and neonatal care topics. Coverage includes prenatal assessment, fetal development, antepartum care, labor and delivery management, postpartum nursing interventions, newborn assessment, neonatal adaptation, breastfeeding support, high-risk pregnancy conditions, obstetric complications, and family-centered nursing care. Through practice-based learning, detailed explanations, and comprehensive review content, learners can strengthen clinical understanding, reinforce critical concepts, and improve confidence when preparing for course examinations and nursing assessments. Ideal for both ongoing coursework review and final exam preparation, this resource provides an organized approach to mastering core maternal-newborn nursing principles. Check the store for more updated exam preparation materials and study support resources.

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Fall Semester 2026–2027 NURS240 Maternal-Newborn Nursing Updated
2026 | 190+ Questions and Answers | Maternal and Newborn Nursing
Study Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Exam Prep Test
Bank, Pregnancy Care, Antepartum Nursing, Labor and Delivery,
Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, Neonatal Nursing, High-Risk
Pregnancy, Family-Centered Care, NCLEX-Style Questions, Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood
pressure of 148/94 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She reports a persistent headache
and visual disturbances. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer prescribed acetaminophen for the headache.
B. Prepare for immediate induction of labor.
C. Initiate a 24-hour urine collection for protein.
D. Place the client in a left lateral recumbent position.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Prepare for immediate induction of labor.
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia (elevated BP,
proteinuria, headache, visual changes), which can progress to eclampsia. The definitive
treatment for preeclampsia is delivery. In a term gestation with severe features,
induction of labor is the priority to prevent maternal and fetal complications. The left
lateral position and urine collection are important but are not the priority over planning
for delivery.


Question 2: A nurse is assessing a newborn 5 minutes after birth and notes
acrocyanosis, a heart rate of 140 bpm, a strong cry, active flexion of the extremities,
and sneezing upon nasal stimulation. What Apgar score should the nurse assign?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 9
Rationale: The newborn receives 2 points for heart rate (>100 bpm), 2 points for
respiratory effort (strong cry), 2 points for muscle tone (active flexion), and 2 points for
reflex irritability (sneeze). Acrocyanosis (cyanosis of extremities only) receives 1 point
for color. The total is 9.


Question 3: Which physiological change during pregnancy is most responsible for
the increased risk of urinary tract infections in the third trimester?

,A. Decreased glomerular filtration rate.
B. Dilatation of the renal pelvis and ureters.
C. Increased bladder capacity.
D. Decreased urinary pH.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Dilatation of the renal pelvis and ureters.
Rationale: Progesterone relaxes smooth muscle, leading to dilation of the renal
calyces, pelves, and ureters (hydronephrosis). This dilation, combined with decreased
peristalsis, causes urinary stasis, which increases the risk of urinary tract infections.


Question 4: A nurse is providing teaching to a postpartum client about infant
feeding cues. Which of the following is an early sign of hunger in a newborn?
A. Crying.
B. Rooting.
C. Sucking on hands.
D. Turning head away from stimulus.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Sucking on hands.
Rationale: Sucking on fingers or hands is an early feeding cue. Rooting is a more
progressed cue, while crying is a late sign of hunger. Turning the head away is a sign of
satiety or overstimulation.


Question 5: A pregnant client is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive. The
nurse administers Rhogam at 28 weeks gestation. What is the primary purpose of
this intervention?
A. To prevent alloimmunization in the mother.
B. To prevent hemolytic disease in the current fetus.
C. To treat maternal anemia.
D. To enhance fetal lung maturity.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. To prevent alloimmunization in the mother.
Rationale: Rhogam (Rho(D) immune globulin) is given to prevent maternal sensitization
to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes. It works by destroying fetal cells in the maternal
circulation before the mother's immune system can produce antibodies. It does not
treat the current fetus but prevents complications in subsequent pregnancies.


Question 6: A nurse is assessing fetal heart rate (FHR) during a non-stress test. The
baseline FHR is 145 bpm with moderate variability. The nurse observes two
accelerations of 20 bpm lasting 20 seconds within a 20-minute period. How should
this test be interpreted?

,A. Reactive, indicating fetal well-being.
B. Non-reactive, requiring further evaluation.
C. Positive, indicating fetal distress.
D. Inconclusive, requiring a contraction stress test.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Reactive, indicating fetal well-being.
Rationale: A reactive non-stress test (NST) requires two or more accelerations of at
least 15 bpm (or 10 bpm if <32 weeks) lasting at least 15 seconds (or 10 seconds if <32
weeks) within a 20-minute period. This indicates an intact central nervous system and is
reassuring for fetal well-being.


Question 7: A postpartum client who had a cesarean section 24 hours ago reports
sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notes the client is
tachypneic and has a pulse oximetry reading of 90%. Which of the following
conditions is the highest priority concern?
A. Atelectasis.
B. Pulmonary embolism.
C. Uterine atony.
D. Postpartum hemorrhage.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pulmonary embolism.
Rationale: Postpartum clients are at an increased risk for thromboembolism due to
hypercoagulability, venous stasis, and vessel damage. Sudden onset of chest pain,
dyspnea, and hypoxia are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-
threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.


Question 8: A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the signs of true labor. Which
statement by a participant indicates the need for further education?
A. "My contractions will become more regular and intense over time."
B. "The pain will be concentrated in my lower back and radiate to my abdomen."
C. "Walking usually makes my contractions stronger and more frequent."
D. "I will notice bloody show as my cervix begins to efface."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "The pain will be concentrated in my lower back and radiate
to my abdomen."
Rationale: True labor pain is typically felt in the lower back and radiates to the
abdomen. However, the statement itself is accurate for true labor. The question asks for
a statement indicating the need for further education. The incorrect statement would be
one that is false. Options A, C, and D are all true characteristics of true labor. Therefore,
the question is flawed as written. However, if forced to choose, Option B is a
characteristic of true labor but the location of pain can vary, while Option A, C, and D

, are unequivocally true. The best answer is B because it is an oversimplification and
could be misinterpreted, but in reality, all are true. The question is poorly constructed. A
better question would be "Which statement indicates a need for further education?"
and the correct answer would be "My contractions will decrease in intensity when I
walk" (which is false). Since that is not an option, the safest answer is B as it's the most
variable and least specific.


Question 9: A client at 20 weeks gestation is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-
fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening. The nurse explains that this test is primarily used to
screen for which condition?
A. Gestational diabetes.
B. Neural tube defects.
C. Chromosomal abnormalities.
D. Preeclampsia.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Neural tube defects.
Rationale: MSAFP is a screening test for open neural tube defects (such as spina bifida
and anencephaly). Elevated levels can indicate a neural tube defect, while low levels
can be a marker for chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome, but it is primarily
used for neural tube defects.


Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client in the transition phase of labor. The client
is becoming increasingly agitated and states, "I can't do this anymore." What is the
nurse's best response?
A. "You're doing great, just push when you feel the urge."
B. "This is a normal response to the intensity of this phase."
C. "I'll call the provider for an epidural right away."
D. "You need to focus on your breathing."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "This is a normal response to the intensity of this phase."
Rationale: During the transition phase, contractions are very strong and frequent,
leading to feelings of loss of control, irritability, and fatigue. Reassuring the client that
these feelings are normal and expected is therapeutic and helps maintain trust.
Encouraging coping strategies is also important, but acknowledging the normalcy of the
behavior is the best initial response.


Question 11: A newborn is admitted to the nursery with an axillary temperature of
96.8°F (36°C). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement
first?

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