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NUR 2755 Exam 2 – MDC IV – (2026) Actual Questions & Answers (Rasmussen College) 100% Guarantee Pass

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NUR 2755 Exam 2 – MDC IV – (2026) Actual Questions & Answers (Rasmussen College) 100% Guarantee Pass

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NUR 2755 Exam 2 – MDC IV – Actual
Questions & Answers (Rasmussen College)
100% Guarantee Pass
1. What is the most common cause of obstructive shock?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Cardiac tamponade related to pericarditis
C. Severe dehydration
D. Myocardial infarction
Answer: B
2. A 37-year-old male is admitted with a severely abscessed tooth, BP 90/42,
HR 136, RR 28, and a temperature of 38.7º C. The nurse suspects sepsis.
What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
B. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Obtain a complete chemistry for laboratory analysis
D. Administer prescribed antibiotics prior to blood cultures
Answer: B
3. Which of the following is a characteristic finding of a full-thickness burn?
A. The wound is very painful
B. The wound heals without intervention
C. The wound requires skin grafting
D. Blisters develop immediately
Answer: C
4. A patient with a known allergy to Sulfa should not receive which of the
following topical medications for burn care?
A. Vancomycin
B. Atropine
C. Furosemide
D. Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Answer: D
5. A patient in septic shock weighs 80 kg. According to the standard protocol
of 30 mL/kg, what is the appropriate initial fluid volume infusion?
A. 1,000 mL
B. 1,500 mL
C. 2,400 mL
D. 3,000 mL
Answer: C

,6. A patient is being treated for a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). Which of the
following medications would the nurse expect to be prescribed?
A. Esomeprazole
B. Warfarin
C. Sildenafil
D. Furosemide
Answer: B
7. What is the most appropriate position for a patient experiencing
hypovolemic shock?
A. Prone
B. High Fowler's
C. Supine with legs elevated
D. Side-lying recovery position
Answer: C
8. A ventilator alarm sounds. The nurse discovers the endotracheal (ET) tube
has become disconnected from the ventilator. Which type of alarm was most
likely triggered?
A. High-pressure alarm
B. Low-pressure alarm
C. Battery low alarm
D. Apnea alarm
Answer: B
9. A patient in acute respiratory failure is suspected of having ventilatory
failure. Which of the following is a potential cause of ventilatory failure?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Pulmonary embolus
D. Opioid analgesic overdose
Answer: D
10. A patient is being discharged on warfarin (Coumadin) for a pulmonary
embolism. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I should limit my alcohol consumption."
B. "I should eat more green leafy vegetables like spinach."
C. "I should take the medication at the same time every day."
D. "I should make a doctor's appointment for weekly blood draws."
Answer: B
11. A post-operative patient complains of sudden shortness of breath and
pleuritic chest pain. What is the most likely cause?
A. Pneumothorax

, B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Congestive heart failure
Answer: B
12. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most commonly used to confirm
a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
A. CT of the head
B. CT angiogram
C. Lumbar Puncture
D. Blood Cultures
Answer: B
13. A weak, thready pulse is a classic clinical manifestation of which type of
shock?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Inhalation injury
C. Fluid volume excess
D. Neurogenic shock
Answer: A
14. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention for a patient on
a mechanical ventilator?
A. Have an Ambu Bag available at the bedside
B. Suction the patient only as needed
C. Assess the patient's respiratory status only every 4 hours
D. Prevent pressure ulcers around the mouth from the ET tube
Answer: C
15. What does an elevated Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)
typically indicate?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Normal cardiac output
D. High risk for hemorrhage
Answer: B
16. Which of the following clinical manifestations is characteristic of a
Pneumothorax?
A. Fever
B. Paradoxical chest movement
C. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side
D. Increased urinary output
Answer: C

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