EMT Block 1 Assessment (PDF) | 2026 EMS Foundations
1. The EMT’s first and most important responsibility upon arriving at a scene is:
A) Forming a general impression of the patient
B) Ensuring scene safety
C) Determining the mechanism of injury
D) Contacting medical direction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety is the highest priority. An injured or incapacitated EMT cannot provide
care, and the scene must be safe before any patient interaction occurs.
2. Which of the following is an example of off-line medical direction?
A) A physician orders a medication via radio
B) The EMT follows standing orders and protocols
C) A paramedic consults with the hospital by phone
D) The medical director reviews a patient care report
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Off-line medical direction refers to standing orders, protocols, and policies
established by the medical director that EMTs follow without direct communication. On-line
direction occurs in real time.
,3. A patient who is unresponsive after a motor vehicle crash can be treated under what type
of consent?
A) Expressed consent
B) Informed consent
C) Implied consent
D) Involuntary consent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Implied consent applies when a patient is unconscious or unable to provide consent
and a reasonable person would consent to emergency treatment.
4. An EMT who states, “If you don’t get in the ambulance, I’ll have the police arrest you,”
could be charged with:
A) Battery
B) Assault
C) False imprisonment
D) Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assault is the threat of harm or force that causes fear in the patient. Battery is the
actual harmful or offensive touching. False imprisonment is unlawful restraint.
5. Which of the following best describes the EMT scope of practice?
A) National standards set by the NREMT that are the same in every state
B) The skills and procedures that an EMT is legally permitted to perform as defined by state law
and medical director protocols
C) Any skill that the EMT has been trained to perform
D) The procedures that a paramedic delegates to the EMT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMT's scope of practice is defined by state legislation and local medical director
protocols. It varies by jurisdiction and is not defined solely by national certification.
6. The EMT should obtain a patient care refusal signature from a patient who:
A) Is unconscious and cannot consent
B) Refuses care after being informed of the risks
C) Is a minor with a life-threatening injury
D) Is in police custody
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a competent adult refuses care, the EMT must explain the risks, document the
refusal, and obtain the patient's signature on a refusal form.
,7. A patient tells the EMT, “I don’t want to go to the hospital.” The patient is alert and
oriented. The EMT’s best response is to:
A) Respect the patient’s wishes after explaining the risks and documenting
B) Transport the patient against their will
C) Call law enforcement to take the patient into custody
D) Refuse to leave until the patient agrees
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse care. The EMT should inform the patient
of the potential consequences, document, and obtain a signed refusal.
8. Which law protects the privacy of patient health information?
A) OSHA
B) HIPAA
C) The Ryan White Act
D) The Good Samaritan Act
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) protects the privacy and
security of patients' health information.
9. The EMT is dispatched to a cardiac arrest. While on duty, the EMT has a legal obligation to
respond. This is known as:
A) Duty to act
B) Implied consent
C) Standard of care
D) Scope of practice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The duty to act is the legal obligation of an on-duty EMT to respond to dispatched
calls and provide care within their scope of practice.
10. A paramedic asks an EMT to perform a needle decompression. This skill is not in the EMT’s
scope of practice. The EMT should:
A) Perform the skill because a paramedic requested it
B) Respectfully decline and state that it is outside the scope of practice
C) Contact medical direction for permission
D) Ask another EMT to perform it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs must practice within their state-defined scope. Performing skills beyond the
, scope can result in legal action and certification revocation, even if directed by a higher-level
provider.
11. Which type of consent is documented in writing and signed by the patient?
A) Implied consent
B) Expressed consent
C) Involuntary consent
D) Implied consent for minors
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Expressed consent can be verbal or written. Signed documentation is the most
definitive form of expressed consent.
12. An EMT who leaves a patient at the emergency department without giving a report to the
nurse has committed:
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Abandonment
D) Slander
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abandonment is the termination of the EMT-patient relationship without ensuring
the transfer of care to an equal or higher-level provider.
13. A 10-year-old child with a broken arm is at school. The parents cannot be reached.
Treatment can be provided under:
A) Implied consent
B) Expressed consent from the school nurse
C) The child's consent
D) No consent is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Implied consent is used for minors when a life- or limb-threatening condition exists
and the parent or guardian is not available to provide consent.
14. The EMT is caring for a patient who is a victim of elder abuse. The EMT’s legal
responsibility is to:
A) Confront the suspected abuser
B) Report the suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities
C) Respect the patient’s wish not to report it
D) Document only and take no further action
1. The EMT’s first and most important responsibility upon arriving at a scene is:
A) Forming a general impression of the patient
B) Ensuring scene safety
C) Determining the mechanism of injury
D) Contacting medical direction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety is the highest priority. An injured or incapacitated EMT cannot provide
care, and the scene must be safe before any patient interaction occurs.
2. Which of the following is an example of off-line medical direction?
A) A physician orders a medication via radio
B) The EMT follows standing orders and protocols
C) A paramedic consults with the hospital by phone
D) The medical director reviews a patient care report
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Off-line medical direction refers to standing orders, protocols, and policies
established by the medical director that EMTs follow without direct communication. On-line
direction occurs in real time.
,3. A patient who is unresponsive after a motor vehicle crash can be treated under what type
of consent?
A) Expressed consent
B) Informed consent
C) Implied consent
D) Involuntary consent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Implied consent applies when a patient is unconscious or unable to provide consent
and a reasonable person would consent to emergency treatment.
4. An EMT who states, “If you don’t get in the ambulance, I’ll have the police arrest you,”
could be charged with:
A) Battery
B) Assault
C) False imprisonment
D) Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assault is the threat of harm or force that causes fear in the patient. Battery is the
actual harmful or offensive touching. False imprisonment is unlawful restraint.
5. Which of the following best describes the EMT scope of practice?
A) National standards set by the NREMT that are the same in every state
B) The skills and procedures that an EMT is legally permitted to perform as defined by state law
and medical director protocols
C) Any skill that the EMT has been trained to perform
D) The procedures that a paramedic delegates to the EMT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMT's scope of practice is defined by state legislation and local medical director
protocols. It varies by jurisdiction and is not defined solely by national certification.
6. The EMT should obtain a patient care refusal signature from a patient who:
A) Is unconscious and cannot consent
B) Refuses care after being informed of the risks
C) Is a minor with a life-threatening injury
D) Is in police custody
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a competent adult refuses care, the EMT must explain the risks, document the
refusal, and obtain the patient's signature on a refusal form.
,7. A patient tells the EMT, “I don’t want to go to the hospital.” The patient is alert and
oriented. The EMT’s best response is to:
A) Respect the patient’s wishes after explaining the risks and documenting
B) Transport the patient against their will
C) Call law enforcement to take the patient into custody
D) Refuse to leave until the patient agrees
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse care. The EMT should inform the patient
of the potential consequences, document, and obtain a signed refusal.
8. Which law protects the privacy of patient health information?
A) OSHA
B) HIPAA
C) The Ryan White Act
D) The Good Samaritan Act
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) protects the privacy and
security of patients' health information.
9. The EMT is dispatched to a cardiac arrest. While on duty, the EMT has a legal obligation to
respond. This is known as:
A) Duty to act
B) Implied consent
C) Standard of care
D) Scope of practice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The duty to act is the legal obligation of an on-duty EMT to respond to dispatched
calls and provide care within their scope of practice.
10. A paramedic asks an EMT to perform a needle decompression. This skill is not in the EMT’s
scope of practice. The EMT should:
A) Perform the skill because a paramedic requested it
B) Respectfully decline and state that it is outside the scope of practice
C) Contact medical direction for permission
D) Ask another EMT to perform it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs must practice within their state-defined scope. Performing skills beyond the
, scope can result in legal action and certification revocation, even if directed by a higher-level
provider.
11. Which type of consent is documented in writing and signed by the patient?
A) Implied consent
B) Expressed consent
C) Involuntary consent
D) Implied consent for minors
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Expressed consent can be verbal or written. Signed documentation is the most
definitive form of expressed consent.
12. An EMT who leaves a patient at the emergency department without giving a report to the
nurse has committed:
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Abandonment
D) Slander
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abandonment is the termination of the EMT-patient relationship without ensuring
the transfer of care to an equal or higher-level provider.
13. A 10-year-old child with a broken arm is at school. The parents cannot be reached.
Treatment can be provided under:
A) Implied consent
B) Expressed consent from the school nurse
C) The child's consent
D) No consent is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Implied consent is used for minors when a life- or limb-threatening condition exists
and the parent or guardian is not available to provide consent.
14. The EMT is caring for a patient who is a victim of elder abuse. The EMT’s legal
responsibility is to:
A) Confront the suspected abuser
B) Report the suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities
C) Respect the patient’s wish not to report it
D) Document only and take no further action
