EMT Block 4 Final Exam (PDF) | 2026 EMS Assessment
1. The first phase of the patient assessment process is:
A) Primary assessment
B) Scene size-up
C) History taking
D) Reassessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The scene size-up is the initial step to ensure safety, determine the mechanism of
injury or nature of illness, identify the number of patients, and request additional resources if
needed.
2. During the scene size-up, the EMT's highest priority is:
A) Determining the number of patients
B) Evaluating the mechanism of injury
C) Ensuring scene safety
D) Forming a general impression of the patient
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An injured or incapacitated EMT cannot provide patient care. Scene safety is always
the first priority before any other action.
,3. Which of the following is assessed during the primary assessment?
A) Vital signs
B) Detailed physical examination
C) Life-threatening conditions affecting airway, breathing, and circulation
D) Past medical history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary assessment is a rapid evaluation to identify and manage immediate
threats to life: airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure.
4. The "A" in the ABCs of the primary assessment stands for:
A) Abdomen
B) Assessment
C) Airway with cervical spine protection (if trauma)
D) Alertness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Airway assessment and management are the first priority. In trauma patients,
cervical spine protection is maintained simultaneously.
5. The general impression is formed during the primary assessment by observing the
patient's:
A) Medical history and medications
B) Level of consciousness, apparent life threats, and overall appearance
C) Detailed physical findings
D) Family input
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The general impression is a quick "big picture" assessment: does the patient look sick
or not? It includes apparent level of consciousness, work of breathing, skin color, and obvious
life threats.
6. Which of the following patients is considered a high priority for immediate transport?
A) A patient with a sprained ankle
B) A patient with difficulty breathing and altered mental status
C) A patient with a minor laceration
D) A patient with a cold and cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients with altered mental status, airway compromise, inadequate breathing, signs
of shock, or severe pain are high priority.
,7. The "C" in the ABCs of emergency care stands for:
A) Cervical spine
B) Circulation
C) Consciousness
D) Cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Circulation assessment includes checking for major bleeding, pulse presence and
quality, skin color, temperature, and moisture.
8. In the primary assessment of a trauma patient, life-threatening hemorrhage should be
controlled:
A) After the airway is secured
B) After breathing is assessed
C) Immediately, even before airway assessment
D) Only during the secondary assessment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Current guidelines prioritize immediate control of massive, life-threatening external
hemorrhage before airway assessment (XABC or MARCH).
9. A patient who responds to verbal commands is said to have what level of consciousness?
A) Alert
B) Responsive to verbal stimuli
C) Responsive to painful stimuli
D) Unresponsive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AVPU scale: Alert, Verbal (responds to voice), Pain (responds to pain),
Unresponsive.
10. A patient who opens their eyes and turns their head when you speak is rated as:
A) A
B) V
C) P
D) U
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is a response to verbal stimuli.
11. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Eye opening
, B) Verbal response
C) Motor response
D) Pupil size
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: GCS evaluates eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6).
Pupil size is a separate neurological assessment.
12. A GCS score of 15 indicates:
A) Severe neurological impairment
B) Moderate disability
C) Normal neurological function
D) Coma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A score of 15 is the highest possible and indicates no impairment.
13. A patient opens their eyes to pain, moans incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from
pain. The GCS is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eye opening to pain = 2; verbal (incomprehensible) = 2; motor (withdraws) = 4. Total
= 8.
14. Which GCS score indicates severe head injury?
A) 13–15
B) 9–12
C) 3–8
D) 10–12
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: GCS ≤8 indicates severe injury and often the need for definitive airway management.
15. The first step in the primary assessment after ensuring scene safety is to:
A) Check the pulse
B) Form a general impression
C) Obtain a blood pressure
D) Apply a cervical collar
1. The first phase of the patient assessment process is:
A) Primary assessment
B) Scene size-up
C) History taking
D) Reassessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The scene size-up is the initial step to ensure safety, determine the mechanism of
injury or nature of illness, identify the number of patients, and request additional resources if
needed.
2. During the scene size-up, the EMT's highest priority is:
A) Determining the number of patients
B) Evaluating the mechanism of injury
C) Ensuring scene safety
D) Forming a general impression of the patient
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An injured or incapacitated EMT cannot provide patient care. Scene safety is always
the first priority before any other action.
,3. Which of the following is assessed during the primary assessment?
A) Vital signs
B) Detailed physical examination
C) Life-threatening conditions affecting airway, breathing, and circulation
D) Past medical history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary assessment is a rapid evaluation to identify and manage immediate
threats to life: airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure.
4. The "A" in the ABCs of the primary assessment stands for:
A) Abdomen
B) Assessment
C) Airway with cervical spine protection (if trauma)
D) Alertness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Airway assessment and management are the first priority. In trauma patients,
cervical spine protection is maintained simultaneously.
5. The general impression is formed during the primary assessment by observing the
patient's:
A) Medical history and medications
B) Level of consciousness, apparent life threats, and overall appearance
C) Detailed physical findings
D) Family input
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The general impression is a quick "big picture" assessment: does the patient look sick
or not? It includes apparent level of consciousness, work of breathing, skin color, and obvious
life threats.
6. Which of the following patients is considered a high priority for immediate transport?
A) A patient with a sprained ankle
B) A patient with difficulty breathing and altered mental status
C) A patient with a minor laceration
D) A patient with a cold and cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients with altered mental status, airway compromise, inadequate breathing, signs
of shock, or severe pain are high priority.
,7. The "C" in the ABCs of emergency care stands for:
A) Cervical spine
B) Circulation
C) Consciousness
D) Cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Circulation assessment includes checking for major bleeding, pulse presence and
quality, skin color, temperature, and moisture.
8. In the primary assessment of a trauma patient, life-threatening hemorrhage should be
controlled:
A) After the airway is secured
B) After breathing is assessed
C) Immediately, even before airway assessment
D) Only during the secondary assessment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Current guidelines prioritize immediate control of massive, life-threatening external
hemorrhage before airway assessment (XABC or MARCH).
9. A patient who responds to verbal commands is said to have what level of consciousness?
A) Alert
B) Responsive to verbal stimuli
C) Responsive to painful stimuli
D) Unresponsive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The AVPU scale: Alert, Verbal (responds to voice), Pain (responds to pain),
Unresponsive.
10. A patient who opens their eyes and turns their head when you speak is rated as:
A) A
B) V
C) P
D) U
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is a response to verbal stimuli.
11. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Eye opening
, B) Verbal response
C) Motor response
D) Pupil size
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: GCS evaluates eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6).
Pupil size is a separate neurological assessment.
12. A GCS score of 15 indicates:
A) Severe neurological impairment
B) Moderate disability
C) Normal neurological function
D) Coma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A score of 15 is the highest possible and indicates no impairment.
13. A patient opens their eyes to pain, moans incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from
pain. The GCS is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eye opening to pain = 2; verbal (incomprehensible) = 2; motor (withdraws) = 4. Total
= 8.
14. Which GCS score indicates severe head injury?
A) 13–15
B) 9–12
C) 3–8
D) 10–12
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: GCS ≤8 indicates severe injury and often the need for definitive airway management.
15. The first step in the primary assessment after ensuring scene safety is to:
A) Check the pulse
B) Form a general impression
C) Obtain a blood pressure
D) Apply a cervical collar
