1|Page
WGU D116 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL EXAM ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM PREPARATION
WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A patient who will begin combination estrogen-progestin therapy (EPT) for
menopause asks the nurse why she cannot take an estrogen-only
preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased
risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia.
What response from the provider about progestin is correct?
A. "Progestin lowers your risk of myocardial infarction (MI)."
B. "Progestin prevents deep vein thrombosis (DVT)."
C. "Progestin decreases your risk of endometrial cancer."
D. "Progestin increases bone resorption to prevent fractures." -
ANSWER-"Progestin decreases your risk of endometrial cancer."
Correct! In patients who still have a uterus, progestin is necessary to
reduce the risk of endometrial carcinoma. Progestins do not have
effects on bone density and do not decrease the risk of MI or DVT.
An adolescent female patient with multiple sexual partners asks a nurse
about birth control methods. The patient tells the nurse she tried oral
contraceptives once but often forgot to take her pills.
The nurse should recommend discussing which contraceptive method with
the provider?
,2|Page
A. Progestin-only oral contraceptives
B. Tubal ligation and condoms
C. An intrauterine device with a spermicide
D. DMPA (Depo-Provera) and condoms - ANSWER-DMPA (Depo-
Provera) and condoms
Correct! This patient has demonstrated a previous history of
nonadherence, so a long-acting contraceptive would be more effective
for her. Because she has multiple sexual partners, she should use a
condom for protection against STDs. An IUD is not indicated for her.
Patients with multiple sexual partners who use IUDs are at greater risk
for STDs. Tubal ligation carries surgical risks and is not recommended
to be used by young women because it is irreversible. Progestin-only
oral contraceptives must be taken every day.
An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure.
Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment
regimen?
A. "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."
B. "I will need to have X-rays of my hands and feet every six months."
C. "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
D. "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer." -
ANSWER-"My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
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Correct! Treatment with androgen replacement therapy in patients with
testicular failure helps restore libido. A side effect of androgens is
premature epiphyseal closure; this is not a concern in adults, so
radiographs to evaluate this are not indicated. Androgens can promote
the growth of prostate cancer when it occurs, but they do not cause it.
Androgens do not restore fertility.
Which finding would indicate that terazosin has been effective for a patient
with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Increased urinary frequency
B. Decreased prostate size
C. Improved urinary hesitation
D. Decreased serum prostate-specific antigen levels - ANSWER-
Improved urinary hesitation
Correct! Terazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic antagonist. These
medications relax the smooth muscles of the bladder neck to improve
urinary symptoms experienced with BPH. They do not decrease the
size of the prostate. Increased urinary frequency is a sign of worsening
BPH, not improvement.
An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
has had only minimal relief using a histamine2-receptor antagonist (H2RA).
The patient is to begin taking omeprazole.
What should the provider teach this patient?
, 4|Page
A. Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.
B. Long-term therapy may be needed.
C. A complete cure is expected with this medication.
D. The medication will be used until surgery can be performed. -
ANSWER-Long-term therapy may be needed.
Correct! Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are much better
than H2RAs for treating GERD. For patients with severe GERD, long-
term maintenance therapy is recommended.
A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
Which medication should the provider order for this patient?
A. Esomeprazole
B. Sucralfate
C. Cimetidine
D. Ranitidine - ANSWER-Ranitidine
A patient has been taking senna for several days, and the provider notes that
the urine is yellowish-brown.
What should the provider know about this symptom?
A. It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.
B. It indicates that renal failure has occurred.
C. It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.
WGU D116 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL EXAM ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM PREPARATION
WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES | ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A patient who will begin combination estrogen-progestin therapy (EPT) for
menopause asks the nurse why she cannot take an estrogen-only
preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy, has a slightly increased
risk of cardiovascular disease, and has mild osteopenia.
What response from the provider about progestin is correct?
A. "Progestin lowers your risk of myocardial infarction (MI)."
B. "Progestin prevents deep vein thrombosis (DVT)."
C. "Progestin decreases your risk of endometrial cancer."
D. "Progestin increases bone resorption to prevent fractures." -
ANSWER-"Progestin decreases your risk of endometrial cancer."
Correct! In patients who still have a uterus, progestin is necessary to
reduce the risk of endometrial carcinoma. Progestins do not have
effects on bone density and do not decrease the risk of MI or DVT.
An adolescent female patient with multiple sexual partners asks a nurse
about birth control methods. The patient tells the nurse she tried oral
contraceptives once but often forgot to take her pills.
The nurse should recommend discussing which contraceptive method with
the provider?
,2|Page
A. Progestin-only oral contraceptives
B. Tubal ligation and condoms
C. An intrauterine device with a spermicide
D. DMPA (Depo-Provera) and condoms - ANSWER-DMPA (Depo-
Provera) and condoms
Correct! This patient has demonstrated a previous history of
nonadherence, so a long-acting contraceptive would be more effective
for her. Because she has multiple sexual partners, she should use a
condom for protection against STDs. An IUD is not indicated for her.
Patients with multiple sexual partners who use IUDs are at greater risk
for STDs. Tubal ligation carries surgical risks and is not recommended
to be used by young women because it is irreversible. Progestin-only
oral contraceptives must be taken every day.
An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure.
Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment
regimen?
A. "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."
B. "I will need to have X-rays of my hands and feet every six months."
C. "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
D. "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer." -
ANSWER-"My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
,3|Page
Correct! Treatment with androgen replacement therapy in patients with
testicular failure helps restore libido. A side effect of androgens is
premature epiphyseal closure; this is not a concern in adults, so
radiographs to evaluate this are not indicated. Androgens can promote
the growth of prostate cancer when it occurs, but they do not cause it.
Androgens do not restore fertility.
Which finding would indicate that terazosin has been effective for a patient
with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Increased urinary frequency
B. Decreased prostate size
C. Improved urinary hesitation
D. Decreased serum prostate-specific antigen levels - ANSWER-
Improved urinary hesitation
Correct! Terazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic antagonist. These
medications relax the smooth muscles of the bladder neck to improve
urinary symptoms experienced with BPH. They do not decrease the
size of the prostate. Increased urinary frequency is a sign of worsening
BPH, not improvement.
An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
has had only minimal relief using a histamine2-receptor antagonist (H2RA).
The patient is to begin taking omeprazole.
What should the provider teach this patient?
, 4|Page
A. Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.
B. Long-term therapy may be needed.
C. A complete cure is expected with this medication.
D. The medication will be used until surgery can be performed. -
ANSWER-Long-term therapy may be needed.
Correct! Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are much better
than H2RAs for treating GERD. For patients with severe GERD, long-
term maintenance therapy is recommended.
A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
Which medication should the provider order for this patient?
A. Esomeprazole
B. Sucralfate
C. Cimetidine
D. Ranitidine - ANSWER-Ranitidine
A patient has been taking senna for several days, and the provider notes that
the urine is yellowish-brown.
What should the provider know about this symptom?
A. It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.
B. It indicates that renal failure has occurred.
C. It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.
