Capstone Med Surg Assessment Questions with Answers and
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Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure device
to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A) It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
B) It delivers increased pressure during inhalation only.
C) It delivers decreased pressure during exhalation only.
D) It delivers pressure that fluctuates based on oxygen saturation levels.
AnswerA) It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing
cycle.
Explanation*: CPAP delivers continuous positive airway pressure throughout the entire
breathing cycle (both inspiration and expiration). This constant pressure keeps the airway
open and prevents collapse during sleep. Unlike BiPAP (bilevel positive airway pressure),
which provides different pressures for inspiration and expiration, CPAP maintains a single
preset pressure level continuously.
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Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection.
B) Fever is a normal response to the new organ.
C) Weight gain is expected during the first month.
D) Chest pain is always related to surgical incision healing.
AnswerA) Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection.
Explanation*: After heart transplantation, shortness of breath (dyspnea) can be a sign of
rejection. Other signs include fatigue, decreased exercise tolerance, weight gain, edema,
and fever. Heart transplant recipients must be educated to recognize these signs and report
them promptly, as rejection can occur without warning and requires immediate medical
intervention. Immunosuppressive medications do not eliminate the risk of rejection
entirely.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of
the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that
SIADH is resolving?
A) Urine specific gravity of 1.020
B) Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L
,C) Urine osmolality of 600 mOsm/kg
D) Serum osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg
AnswerA) Urine specific gravity of 1.020
Explanation*: In SIADH, excessive ADH causes water retention, leading to diluted serum
(hyponatremia) and concentrated urine (high specific gravity >1.030). As SIADH resolves,
urine specific gravity normalizes to approximately 1.005-1.030. A specific gravity of 1.020
indicates improvement toward normal urine concentration. Normal serum sodium is 135-
145 mEq/L, and normal serum osmolality is 275-295 mOsm/kg.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening
of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in
the teaching?
A) You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.
B) You should eat red meat 24 hours before the test.
C) You should take vitamin C supplements before the test.
D) You should collect the sample during the first morning void.
AnswerA) You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.
Explanation*: Corticosteroids can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and may
cause false-positive results on FOBT. Clients should also avoid NSAIDs, aspirin, and
anticoagulants before testing. Red meat, vitamin C, and certain vegetables should be
avoided as they can interfere with test results. The sample should be collected from the
stool, not urine.
, Question 5
A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications
should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the
procedure?
A) Propofol
B) Midazolam
C) Fentanyl
D) Ketamine
AnswerA) Propofol
Explanation*: Propofol is a commonly used anesthetic agent for colonoscopy procedures
due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. It provides deep sedation with quick
recovery. While midazolam and fentanyl may be used for conscious sedation, propofol is
preferred for monitored anesthesia care (MAC) during colonoscopy. Ketamine is typically
used in other settings.
Question 6
A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan? (select all that
apply)
A) Monitor blood glucose levels
B) Maintain NPO status until pain free
C) Manage acute pain
Explanations Complete Solutions, 100% Correct | New
Update | | Complete A+ Guide
https://www.stuvia.com/user/geniusexpert
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure device
to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A) It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
B) It delivers increased pressure during inhalation only.
C) It delivers decreased pressure during exhalation only.
D) It delivers pressure that fluctuates based on oxygen saturation levels.
AnswerA) It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing
cycle.
Explanation*: CPAP delivers continuous positive airway pressure throughout the entire
breathing cycle (both inspiration and expiration). This constant pressure keeps the airway
open and prevents collapse during sleep. Unlike BiPAP (bilevel positive airway pressure),
which provides different pressures for inspiration and expiration, CPAP maintains a single
preset pressure level continuously.
,https://www.stuvia.com/user/geniusexpert
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection.
B) Fever is a normal response to the new organ.
C) Weight gain is expected during the first month.
D) Chest pain is always related to surgical incision healing.
AnswerA) Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection.
Explanation*: After heart transplantation, shortness of breath (dyspnea) can be a sign of
rejection. Other signs include fatigue, decreased exercise tolerance, weight gain, edema,
and fever. Heart transplant recipients must be educated to recognize these signs and report
them promptly, as rejection can occur without warning and requires immediate medical
intervention. Immunosuppressive medications do not eliminate the risk of rejection
entirely.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of
the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that
SIADH is resolving?
A) Urine specific gravity of 1.020
B) Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L
,C) Urine osmolality of 600 mOsm/kg
D) Serum osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg
AnswerA) Urine specific gravity of 1.020
Explanation*: In SIADH, excessive ADH causes water retention, leading to diluted serum
(hyponatremia) and concentrated urine (high specific gravity >1.030). As SIADH resolves,
urine specific gravity normalizes to approximately 1.005-1.030. A specific gravity of 1.020
indicates improvement toward normal urine concentration. Normal serum sodium is 135-
145 mEq/L, and normal serum osmolality is 275-295 mOsm/kg.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening
of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in
the teaching?
A) You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.
B) You should eat red meat 24 hours before the test.
C) You should take vitamin C supplements before the test.
D) You should collect the sample during the first morning void.
AnswerA) You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.
Explanation*: Corticosteroids can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and may
cause false-positive results on FOBT. Clients should also avoid NSAIDs, aspirin, and
anticoagulants before testing. Red meat, vitamin C, and certain vegetables should be
avoided as they can interfere with test results. The sample should be collected from the
stool, not urine.
, Question 5
A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications
should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the
procedure?
A) Propofol
B) Midazolam
C) Fentanyl
D) Ketamine
AnswerA) Propofol
Explanation*: Propofol is a commonly used anesthetic agent for colonoscopy procedures
due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. It provides deep sedation with quick
recovery. While midazolam and fentanyl may be used for conscious sedation, propofol is
preferred for monitored anesthesia care (MAC) during colonoscopy. Ketamine is typically
used in other settings.
Question 6
A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan? (select all that
apply)
A) Monitor blood glucose levels
B) Maintain NPO status until pain free
C) Manage acute pain
