NURS 5434 HTN Quiz (2026) 200 Real Questions with
Detailed Verified Answers and Rationales | 100%
Guaranteed Pass (BRAND NEW!!!)
NURS 5434 HYPERTENSION QUIZ 2026
This comprehensive Quiz covers all essential hypertension topics for the NURS 5434 Family III
(FNP) course at UT Arlington. Core content includes: epidemiology and population disparities
(racial/ethnic variations, age/gender patterns); pathophysiology of primary and secondary
hypertension; the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) mechanisms and clinical
application; ACC/AHA 2024 hypertension classification (Normal, Elevated, Stage 1, Stage 2);
accurate BP measurement techniques and diagnostic criteria; non-pharmacologic management
(DASH diet, sodium restriction, exercise); pharmacologic therapy including first-line agents,
combination therapy, and special population considerations (African Americans, CKD, diabetes,
pregnancy, elderly); resistant hypertension evaluation and management; hypertensive
emergencies vs. urgencies recognition and treatment; secondary hypertension causes including
primary aldosteronism, renal artery stenosis, pheochromocytoma, and obstructive sleep apnea;
and target organ damage assessment (retinopathy, nephropathy, LVH, cerebrovascular).
MULTIPLE CHOICES
①. According to the ACC/AHA 2024 hypertension guidelines, a patient with an average SBP of
136 mm Hg and DBP of 82 mm Hg on three separate visits would be classified as having which
stage of hypertension?
A) Normal
B) Elevated
C) Stage 1 hypertension
D) Stage 2 hypertension
Answer: C
1|Page SUCCESS!!!
,ACC/AHA defines Stage 1 HTN as SBP 130–139 or DBP 80–89 mm Hg. This patient meets
both criteria and would be diagnosed with Stage 1 hypertension after confirmation on two or
more visits.
②. Before the age of 50, which blood pressure component, if elevated, is most indicative of
increased cardiovascular risk?
A) Systolic blood pressure
B) Diastolic blood pressure
C) Pulse pressure
D) Mean arterial pressure
Answer: B
In patients under age 50, elevated diastolic blood pressure is the stronger predictor of
cardiovascular risk. After age 50, systolic blood pressure becomes the more critical risk factor.
③. African Americans have a higher prevalence of hypertension and worse outcomes partly due
to which physiological mechanism?
A) Decreased sympathetic nervous system activity
B) Enhanced renal sodium reabsorption
C) Reduced sensitivity to angiotensin II
D) Lower baseline plasma renin levels
Answer: B
African Americans demonstrate enhanced renal sodium reabsorption, contributing to salt
sensitivity and increased hypertension risk. This also explains the greater efficacy of diuretics
and calcium channel blockers in this population.
④. Which population group has the highest prevalence of hypertension after age 65?
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,A) Men
B) Women
C) Both genders equally
D) Non-Hispanic White adults
Answer: B
After age 65, hypertension prevalence is higher in women than in men. Before age 45,
prevalence is higher in men.
⑤. A 28-year-old patient presents with paroxysmal episodes of severe headache, palpitations,
diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure. Which secondary cause of hypertension should be
suspected?
A) Primary aldosteronism
B) Renal artery stenosis
C) Pheochromocytoma
D) Cushing syndrome
Answer: C
Pheochromocytoma classically presents with paroxysmal or sustained hypertension
accompanied by headache, palpitations, diaphoresis, and pallor due to episodic catecholamine
release.
⑥. What is the primary stimulus for renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney?
A) Increased sodium delivery to the macula densa
B) Decreased renal perfusion pressure
C) Increased circulating angiotensin II
D) Elevated serum potassium levels
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, Answer: B
Reduced renal perfusion pressure (e.g., hypotension, renal artery stenosis) is sensed by the
juxtaglomerular cells, triggering renin release. Decreased sodium delivery also stimulates renin,
but perfusion pressure is the primary driver.
⑦. Angiotensin II exerts which of the following direct effects?
A) Vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion
B) Vasoconstriction and increased aldosterone secretion
C) Vasodilation and increased aldosterone secretion
D) Vasoconstriction and decreased aldosterone secretion
Answer: B
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor (increasing systemic vascular resistance) and
stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex, leading to sodium and water retention.
⑧. ACE inhibitors primarily act on which component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
system?
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin I
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
D) Aldosterone
Answer: C
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by inhibiting angiotensin-
converting enzyme, thereby reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.
⑨. Angiotensinogen is produced by which organ?
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
Detailed Verified Answers and Rationales | 100%
Guaranteed Pass (BRAND NEW!!!)
NURS 5434 HYPERTENSION QUIZ 2026
This comprehensive Quiz covers all essential hypertension topics for the NURS 5434 Family III
(FNP) course at UT Arlington. Core content includes: epidemiology and population disparities
(racial/ethnic variations, age/gender patterns); pathophysiology of primary and secondary
hypertension; the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) mechanisms and clinical
application; ACC/AHA 2024 hypertension classification (Normal, Elevated, Stage 1, Stage 2);
accurate BP measurement techniques and diagnostic criteria; non-pharmacologic management
(DASH diet, sodium restriction, exercise); pharmacologic therapy including first-line agents,
combination therapy, and special population considerations (African Americans, CKD, diabetes,
pregnancy, elderly); resistant hypertension evaluation and management; hypertensive
emergencies vs. urgencies recognition and treatment; secondary hypertension causes including
primary aldosteronism, renal artery stenosis, pheochromocytoma, and obstructive sleep apnea;
and target organ damage assessment (retinopathy, nephropathy, LVH, cerebrovascular).
MULTIPLE CHOICES
①. According to the ACC/AHA 2024 hypertension guidelines, a patient with an average SBP of
136 mm Hg and DBP of 82 mm Hg on three separate visits would be classified as having which
stage of hypertension?
A) Normal
B) Elevated
C) Stage 1 hypertension
D) Stage 2 hypertension
Answer: C
1|Page SUCCESS!!!
,ACC/AHA defines Stage 1 HTN as SBP 130–139 or DBP 80–89 mm Hg. This patient meets
both criteria and would be diagnosed with Stage 1 hypertension after confirmation on two or
more visits.
②. Before the age of 50, which blood pressure component, if elevated, is most indicative of
increased cardiovascular risk?
A) Systolic blood pressure
B) Diastolic blood pressure
C) Pulse pressure
D) Mean arterial pressure
Answer: B
In patients under age 50, elevated diastolic blood pressure is the stronger predictor of
cardiovascular risk. After age 50, systolic blood pressure becomes the more critical risk factor.
③. African Americans have a higher prevalence of hypertension and worse outcomes partly due
to which physiological mechanism?
A) Decreased sympathetic nervous system activity
B) Enhanced renal sodium reabsorption
C) Reduced sensitivity to angiotensin II
D) Lower baseline plasma renin levels
Answer: B
African Americans demonstrate enhanced renal sodium reabsorption, contributing to salt
sensitivity and increased hypertension risk. This also explains the greater efficacy of diuretics
and calcium channel blockers in this population.
④. Which population group has the highest prevalence of hypertension after age 65?
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,A) Men
B) Women
C) Both genders equally
D) Non-Hispanic White adults
Answer: B
After age 65, hypertension prevalence is higher in women than in men. Before age 45,
prevalence is higher in men.
⑤. A 28-year-old patient presents with paroxysmal episodes of severe headache, palpitations,
diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure. Which secondary cause of hypertension should be
suspected?
A) Primary aldosteronism
B) Renal artery stenosis
C) Pheochromocytoma
D) Cushing syndrome
Answer: C
Pheochromocytoma classically presents with paroxysmal or sustained hypertension
accompanied by headache, palpitations, diaphoresis, and pallor due to episodic catecholamine
release.
⑥. What is the primary stimulus for renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney?
A) Increased sodium delivery to the macula densa
B) Decreased renal perfusion pressure
C) Increased circulating angiotensin II
D) Elevated serum potassium levels
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, Answer: B
Reduced renal perfusion pressure (e.g., hypotension, renal artery stenosis) is sensed by the
juxtaglomerular cells, triggering renin release. Decreased sodium delivery also stimulates renin,
but perfusion pressure is the primary driver.
⑦. Angiotensin II exerts which of the following direct effects?
A) Vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion
B) Vasoconstriction and increased aldosterone secretion
C) Vasodilation and increased aldosterone secretion
D) Vasoconstriction and decreased aldosterone secretion
Answer: B
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor (increasing systemic vascular resistance) and
stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex, leading to sodium and water retention.
⑧. ACE inhibitors primarily act on which component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
system?
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin I
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
D) Aldosterone
Answer: C
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by inhibiting angiotensin-
converting enzyme, thereby reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.
⑨. Angiotensinogen is produced by which organ?
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
