Page 1 of 103
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS 1–4MATERNAL AND PEDIATRICS (NUR 254):
-FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED- VERIFIED ANSWERS-
ALREADY GRADED A+ || NEWEST EXAM 2025-2026
Nursing – Maternal‑Child Nursing
This document covers: -
• Exam 1 focuses on foundational maternal nursing: GTPAL,
Naegele’s rule, presumptive/probable/positive signs of pregnancy,
prenatal care, nutritional needs, high‑risk factors (adolescents,
advanced maternal age), pregnancy discomforts, and maternal
physiologic adaptations.
• Exam 2 addresses intrapartum and postpartum nursing: stages of
labor, fetal monitoring (NST, CST, late decelerations), pain
management (epidural, nitrous oxide), true vs. false labor,
postpartum assessment (fundus, lochia), postpartum hemorrhage,
uterine atony, mastitis, endometritis, and newborn transition
(APGAR, NRP).
• Exam 3 covers newborn nursing and pediatric growth &
development: newborn assessment, reflexes, jaundice,
thermoregulation, newborn screening (hearing, metabolic), safe
sleep, immunizations (CDC schedule), pediatric milestones (infant
through adolescent), developmental surveillance, and injury
prevention.
• Exam 4 focuses on pediatric health disorders: asthma,
bronchiolitis, croup, congenital heart defects (VSD, TOF), Kawasaki
disease, pyloric stenosis, intussusception, DKA, sickle cell crisis,
hemophilia, leukemia, Wilms tumor, meningitis, seizures, cerebral
palsy, and pediatric emergencies (anaphylaxis, child abuse,
suicidal ideation).
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EXAM 1 – FOUNDATIONS OF MATERNAL NURSING & PREGNANCY
Questions 1–50
1. A pregnant patient’s last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on
May 4th. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery
(EDD)?
A) February 1st
B) February 11th
C) January 28th
D) February 18th
Correct Answer: B – Naegele’s rule: subtract 3 months from the first day
of the LNMP and add 7 days (and add 1 year if crossing a year boundary).
May 4 minus 3 months = February 4; February 4 plus 7 days = February
11.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation. Which
of the following is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Chadwick’s sign
B) Positive pregnancy test
C) Hegar’s sign
D) Breast tenderness and fatigue
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Correct Answer: D – Presumptive signs are subjective, felt by the patient
(amenorrhea, nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness). Probable signs are
objective findings noted by the examiner (Chadwick’s sign, Hegar’s sign,
positive pregnancy test).
3. A pregnant patient asks, “When will I start to feel the baby move?” The
nurse knows that quickening is typically felt by a primigravida at:
A) 12–14 weeks
B) 16–20 weeks
C) 24–26 weeks
D) 28–30 weeks
Correct Answer: B – Quickening is usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks
in a first‑time pregnancy. Multigravidas may feel it earlier (14–16 weeks)
because they already recognize the sensation.
4. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who states, “I think I am
pregnant.” The first day of her LMP was October 1st. Using Naegele’s
rule, the nurse calculates the EDD to be:
A) September 24
B) July 8
C) August 24
D) September 8
, Page 4 of 103
Correct Answer: B – October 1 minus 3 months = July 1; July 1 plus 7
days = July 8.
5. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum
during early pregnancy and is the hormone detected in pregnancy tests?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Relaxin
Correct Answer: C – Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced
by the developing placenta, sustains the corpus luteum, and is the
marker detected by urine/serum pregnancy tests.
6. A client in the 10th week of pregnancy asks about managing morning
sickness. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Avoid all fluids during meals to prevent nausea
B) Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
C) Increase intake of spicy and fatty foods to settle the stomach
D) Take antiemetic medication immediately upon waking
Correct Answer: B – Eating small, frequent meals helps maintain stable
blood glucose and reduces gastric distension, which can trigger nausea.
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS 1–4MATERNAL AND PEDIATRICS (NUR 254):
-FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED- VERIFIED ANSWERS-
ALREADY GRADED A+ || NEWEST EXAM 2025-2026
Nursing – Maternal‑Child Nursing
This document covers: -
• Exam 1 focuses on foundational maternal nursing: GTPAL,
Naegele’s rule, presumptive/probable/positive signs of pregnancy,
prenatal care, nutritional needs, high‑risk factors (adolescents,
advanced maternal age), pregnancy discomforts, and maternal
physiologic adaptations.
• Exam 2 addresses intrapartum and postpartum nursing: stages of
labor, fetal monitoring (NST, CST, late decelerations), pain
management (epidural, nitrous oxide), true vs. false labor,
postpartum assessment (fundus, lochia), postpartum hemorrhage,
uterine atony, mastitis, endometritis, and newborn transition
(APGAR, NRP).
• Exam 3 covers newborn nursing and pediatric growth &
development: newborn assessment, reflexes, jaundice,
thermoregulation, newborn screening (hearing, metabolic), safe
sleep, immunizations (CDC schedule), pediatric milestones (infant
through adolescent), developmental surveillance, and injury
prevention.
• Exam 4 focuses on pediatric health disorders: asthma,
bronchiolitis, croup, congenital heart defects (VSD, TOF), Kawasaki
disease, pyloric stenosis, intussusception, DKA, sickle cell crisis,
hemophilia, leukemia, Wilms tumor, meningitis, seizures, cerebral
palsy, and pediatric emergencies (anaphylaxis, child abuse,
suicidal ideation).
, Page 2 of 103
EXAM 1 – FOUNDATIONS OF MATERNAL NURSING & PREGNANCY
Questions 1–50
1. A pregnant patient’s last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on
May 4th. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the estimated date of delivery
(EDD)?
A) February 1st
B) February 11th
C) January 28th
D) February 18th
Correct Answer: B – Naegele’s rule: subtract 3 months from the first day
of the LNMP and add 7 days (and add 1 year if crossing a year boundary).
May 4 minus 3 months = February 4; February 4 plus 7 days = February
11.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 12 weeks gestation. Which
of the following is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A) Chadwick’s sign
B) Positive pregnancy test
C) Hegar’s sign
D) Breast tenderness and fatigue
, Page 3 of 103
Correct Answer: D – Presumptive signs are subjective, felt by the patient
(amenorrhea, nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness). Probable signs are
objective findings noted by the examiner (Chadwick’s sign, Hegar’s sign,
positive pregnancy test).
3. A pregnant patient asks, “When will I start to feel the baby move?” The
nurse knows that quickening is typically felt by a primigravida at:
A) 12–14 weeks
B) 16–20 weeks
C) 24–26 weeks
D) 28–30 weeks
Correct Answer: B – Quickening is usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks
in a first‑time pregnancy. Multigravidas may feel it earlier (14–16 weeks)
because they already recognize the sensation.
4. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who states, “I think I am
pregnant.” The first day of her LMP was October 1st. Using Naegele’s
rule, the nurse calculates the EDD to be:
A) September 24
B) July 8
C) August 24
D) September 8
, Page 4 of 103
Correct Answer: B – October 1 minus 3 months = July 1; July 1 plus 7
days = July 8.
5. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum
during early pregnancy and is the hormone detected in pregnancy tests?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Relaxin
Correct Answer: C – Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced
by the developing placenta, sustains the corpus luteum, and is the
marker detected by urine/serum pregnancy tests.
6. A client in the 10th week of pregnancy asks about managing morning
sickness. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Avoid all fluids during meals to prevent nausea
B) Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
C) Increase intake of spicy and fatty foods to settle the stomach
D) Take antiemetic medication immediately upon waking
Correct Answer: B – Eating small, frequent meals helps maintain stable
blood glucose and reduces gastric distension, which can trigger nausea.
