Updated ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit Exam
with NGN 180 Questions 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam 2026
3viewing now
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
• A. Weight gain of 1 lb in 24 hr
• B. Crackles in bilateral lung bases
• C. Pink frothy sputum
• D. Dyspnea on exertion
Answer: C. Pink frothy sputum
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum indicates severe pulmonary edema and fluid filling
the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange. This is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate intervention (oxygen, diuretics, positioning) to prevent
respiratory failure.
Q2. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
• A. A client with a dressing that needs reinforcement
• B. A client reporting pain rated 6/10
• C. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL in 12 hours
• D. A client scheduled for discharge
Answer: C. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL in 12 hours
Rationale: Low urine output (100 mL in 12 hours) indicates possible renal failure
or severe hypovolemia. Urine output should be at least 30 mL/hour (240 mL in 8
,hours). This urgent finding requires immediate assessment using the ABCs and
prioritizing subtle signs of instability over comfort or routine tasks.
Q3. A client is on airborne precautions. Which personal protective equipment
(PPE) is essential?
• A. Surgical mask
• B. N95 respirator
• C. Gown and gloves only
• D. Face shield
Answer: B. N95 respirator
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator (or higher level) to
filter very small particles such as tuberculosis, measles, and varicella. A surgical
mask is insufficient for airborne pathogens.
Q4. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client should be in
a private room?
• A. Client with pneumonia
• B. Client with Clostridioides difficile
• C. Client with cellulitis
• D. Client with urinary tract infection
Answer: B. Client with Clostridioides difficile
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room to prevent
spore transmission to other clients. Pneumonia may need droplet precautions but
not always a private room; cellulitis and UTI require standard precautions only.
Q5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an LPN. Which task is appropriate?
• A. Initial admission assessment
, • B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube for decompression
• C. Teaching a diabetic patient about insulin injection
• D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
Answer: B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube for decompression
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can perform stable, standard procedures like NG tube
insertion (depending on facility policy). Initial assessment, client teaching, and
evaluation of care outcomes require the RN scope of practice.
Q6. A nurse is preparing to use a fire extinguisher. Which is the correct
sequence of steps?
• A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
• B. Aim, Pull, Squeeze, Sweep
• C. Squeeze, Aim, Pull, Sweep
• D. Pull, Squeeze, Aim, Sweep
Answer: A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Rationale: The correct PASS sequence is: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the
fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side.
Q7. A client is prescribed wrist restraints. Which action should the nurse take?
• A. Tie the restraints to the bed side rail
• B. Remove the restraints every 2 hours
• C. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot
• D. Apply the restraints tightly to prevent movement
Answer: C. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot
Rationale: Restraints must be tied with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid
removal in an emergency. They should be tied to the bed frame (not side rails,
, which move) and removed every 2 hours for skin assessment and range of
motion.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
• C. 100 mL of drainage in the collection chamber over 8 hours
• D. The chest tube is secured to the client’s chest wall
Answer: A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, which requires immediate
assessment and intervention to locate the source (e.g., loose connection,
dislodgement). Tidaling is normal, and drainage of 100 mL/8 hrs is acceptable.
Q9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following statements
demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
• A. “I will wear tight clothing over my ICD.”
• B. “I will avoid using a microwave oven.”
• C. “I will wear loose clothing around my ICD.”
• D. “I will keep my cell phone in my chest pocket.”
Answer: C. “I will wear loose clothing around my ICD.”
Rationale: Loose clothing prevents irritation over the device site. Microwaves are
safe, and cell phones should be kept on the opposite side of the body from the
device.
with NGN 180 Questions 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam 2026
3viewing now
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
• A. Weight gain of 1 lb in 24 hr
• B. Crackles in bilateral lung bases
• C. Pink frothy sputum
• D. Dyspnea on exertion
Answer: C. Pink frothy sputum
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum indicates severe pulmonary edema and fluid filling
the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange. This is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate intervention (oxygen, diuretics, positioning) to prevent
respiratory failure.
Q2. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
• A. A client with a dressing that needs reinforcement
• B. A client reporting pain rated 6/10
• C. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL in 12 hours
• D. A client scheduled for discharge
Answer: C. A client whose urinary output was 100 mL in 12 hours
Rationale: Low urine output (100 mL in 12 hours) indicates possible renal failure
or severe hypovolemia. Urine output should be at least 30 mL/hour (240 mL in 8
,hours). This urgent finding requires immediate assessment using the ABCs and
prioritizing subtle signs of instability over comfort or routine tasks.
Q3. A client is on airborne precautions. Which personal protective equipment
(PPE) is essential?
• A. Surgical mask
• B. N95 respirator
• C. Gown and gloves only
• D. Face shield
Answer: B. N95 respirator
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator (or higher level) to
filter very small particles such as tuberculosis, measles, and varicella. A surgical
mask is insufficient for airborne pathogens.
Q4. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client should be in
a private room?
• A. Client with pneumonia
• B. Client with Clostridioides difficile
• C. Client with cellulitis
• D. Client with urinary tract infection
Answer: B. Client with Clostridioides difficile
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room to prevent
spore transmission to other clients. Pneumonia may need droplet precautions but
not always a private room; cellulitis and UTI require standard precautions only.
Q5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an LPN. Which task is appropriate?
• A. Initial admission assessment
, • B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube for decompression
• C. Teaching a diabetic patient about insulin injection
• D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
Answer: B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube for decompression
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can perform stable, standard procedures like NG tube
insertion (depending on facility policy). Initial assessment, client teaching, and
evaluation of care outcomes require the RN scope of practice.
Q6. A nurse is preparing to use a fire extinguisher. Which is the correct
sequence of steps?
• A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
• B. Aim, Pull, Squeeze, Sweep
• C. Squeeze, Aim, Pull, Sweep
• D. Pull, Squeeze, Aim, Sweep
Answer: A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Rationale: The correct PASS sequence is: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the
fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side.
Q7. A client is prescribed wrist restraints. Which action should the nurse take?
• A. Tie the restraints to the bed side rail
• B. Remove the restraints every 2 hours
• C. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot
• D. Apply the restraints tightly to prevent movement
Answer: C. Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot
Rationale: Restraints must be tied with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid
removal in an emergency. They should be tied to the bed frame (not side rails,
, which move) and removed every 2 hours for skin assessment and range of
motion.
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
• C. 100 mL of drainage in the collection chamber over 8 hours
• D. The chest tube is secured to the client’s chest wall
Answer: A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, which requires immediate
assessment and intervention to locate the source (e.g., loose connection,
dislodgement). Tidaling is normal, and drainage of 100 mL/8 hrs is acceptable.
Q9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following statements
demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
• A. “I will wear tight clothing over my ICD.”
• B. “I will avoid using a microwave oven.”
• C. “I will wear loose clothing around my ICD.”
• D. “I will keep my cell phone in my chest pocket.”
Answer: C. “I will wear loose clothing around my ICD.”
Rationale: Loose clothing prevents irritation over the device site. Microwaves are
safe, and cell phones should be kept on the opposite side of the body from the
device.
