NR 224: Fundamentals of Nursing - Week 6 Quiz 2026 |Chamberlain
1. When assessing a patient’s apical pulse, where should the nurse place the
stethoscope?
A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
B. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
C. Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
Answer: C
Rationale: The apical pulse (point of maximal impulse) is located at the fifth intercostal
space at the left midclavicular line.
2. Which of the following describes the correct technique for assessing a pulse
deficit?
A. One nurse counts the radial pulse while another counts the carotid pulse simultaneously
B. The nurse subtracts the diastolic blood pressure from the systolic blood pressure
C. The nurse counts the radial pulse for 30 seconds and doubles it, then does the same for the apical
D. One nurse counts the apical pulse while another counts the radial pulse simultaneously for 60 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: A pulse deficit is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. Both
must be measured simultaneously by two clinicians for a full minute.
,3. A nurse is measuring blood pressure. If the blood pressure cuff is too narrow
(small) for the patient’s arm, what effect will this have on the reading?
A. The reading will be falsely high
B. The reading will be falsely low
C. It will have no effect on the systolic reading
D. It will result in an undetectable diastolic pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Using a cuff that is too small or wrapped too loosely will result in a falsely high
blood pressure reading.
4. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer after surgery?
A. To decrease the patient’s heart rate
B. To measure the patient’s forced expiratory volume
C. To promote lung expansion and prevent atelectasis
D. To increase the delivery of nebulized medications
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing (sustained maximal
inspiration), which helps open collapsed alveoli and prevents pneumonia/atelectasis.
5. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which term should
the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Tachypnea
B. Eupnea
C. Apnea
D. Bradypnea
Answer: D
Rationale: Bradypnea is defined as a respiratory rate that is regular but abnormally slow
(less than 12 breaths per minute in an adult).
, 6. Which clinical sign is considered an early indicator of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Restlessness
Answer: D
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, and agitation are early signs of hypoxia. Cyanosis is a late
sign.
7. The nurse is preparing to administer oxygen via a nasal cannula. What is the
maximum recommended flow rate for this device?
A. 2 L/min
B. 15 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 6 L/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Nasal cannulas are typically used for flow rates of 1 to 6 L/min. Rates above 6
L/min are ineffective and cause drying of the mucosa.
8. When assessing orthostatic hypotension, which drop in blood pressure is
clinically significant?
A. A drop in systolic BP of 5 mmHg
B. An increase in diastolic BP of 10 mmHg
C. A drop in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or more
D. A decrease in heart rate of 10 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a systolic BP decrease of at least 20
mmHg or a diastolic BP decrease of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing.
1. When assessing a patient’s apical pulse, where should the nurse place the
stethoscope?
A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
B. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
C. Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
Answer: C
Rationale: The apical pulse (point of maximal impulse) is located at the fifth intercostal
space at the left midclavicular line.
2. Which of the following describes the correct technique for assessing a pulse
deficit?
A. One nurse counts the radial pulse while another counts the carotid pulse simultaneously
B. The nurse subtracts the diastolic blood pressure from the systolic blood pressure
C. The nurse counts the radial pulse for 30 seconds and doubles it, then does the same for the apical
D. One nurse counts the apical pulse while another counts the radial pulse simultaneously for 60 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: A pulse deficit is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. Both
must be measured simultaneously by two clinicians for a full minute.
,3. A nurse is measuring blood pressure. If the blood pressure cuff is too narrow
(small) for the patient’s arm, what effect will this have on the reading?
A. The reading will be falsely high
B. The reading will be falsely low
C. It will have no effect on the systolic reading
D. It will result in an undetectable diastolic pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Using a cuff that is too small or wrapped too loosely will result in a falsely high
blood pressure reading.
4. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer after surgery?
A. To decrease the patient’s heart rate
B. To measure the patient’s forced expiratory volume
C. To promote lung expansion and prevent atelectasis
D. To increase the delivery of nebulized medications
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing (sustained maximal
inspiration), which helps open collapsed alveoli and prevents pneumonia/atelectasis.
5. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which term should
the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Tachypnea
B. Eupnea
C. Apnea
D. Bradypnea
Answer: D
Rationale: Bradypnea is defined as a respiratory rate that is regular but abnormally slow
(less than 12 breaths per minute in an adult).
, 6. Which clinical sign is considered an early indicator of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Restlessness
Answer: D
Rationale: Restlessness, anxiety, and agitation are early signs of hypoxia. Cyanosis is a late
sign.
7. The nurse is preparing to administer oxygen via a nasal cannula. What is the
maximum recommended flow rate for this device?
A. 2 L/min
B. 15 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 6 L/min
Answer: D
Rationale: Nasal cannulas are typically used for flow rates of 1 to 6 L/min. Rates above 6
L/min are ineffective and cause drying of the mucosa.
8. When assessing orthostatic hypotension, which drop in blood pressure is
clinically significant?
A. A drop in systolic BP of 5 mmHg
B. An increase in diastolic BP of 10 mmHg
C. A drop in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or more
D. A decrease in heart rate of 10 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a systolic BP decrease of at least 20
mmHg or a diastolic BP decrease of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing.
