ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2026: REAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS FIRST ATTEMPT GUARANTEED UPDATED QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE ANSWERS | HIGH-LEVEL EXIT EXAM

A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene? A. Holding the newborn in a face-to-face position. B. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper. C. Requesting the nurse take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest. D. Viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Newborns lack the cognitive capability to be uncooperative; their behaviors are entirely reflexive and instinctual. A parent perceiving an infant as deliberately uncooperative may signal a lack of understanding of normal newborn development, putting the parent-child bond at risk and requiring targeted nursing education and support. Question 2 A nurse in an emergency department assesses an adolescent client with conduct disorder who threatened suicide at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment? A. "Tell me about your siblings." B. "Tell me what kind of music you like." C. "Tell me how often you drink alcohol." D. "Tell me about your school schedule." Correct Answer: C Rationale: Adolescents diagnosed with conduct disorder carry a significantly higher statistical risk for substance abuse. Alcohol and drug consumption increase impulsivity and lower inhibitions, which exponentially elevates the immediate risk of self-harm and completed suicide. Question 3 A nurse is caring for a client who is taking levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective? A. Weight loss B. Decreased blood pressure C. Absence of seizures D. Decreased inflammation Correct Answer: A Rationale: Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. A therapeutic response speeds up the client's metabolic rate, which characteristically resolves clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism by inducing weight loss, increasing energy levels, and reversing bradycardia. Question 4 A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a newborn’s umbilical cord care. Which instruction should be included? A. Contact the provider if the cord turns black. B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily. C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off. D. The cord stump will fall off in exactly five days. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Keeping the umbilical cord stump clean and dry is the safest way to prevent infection and promote natural sloughing. Substances like hydrogen peroxide or alcohol are no longer recommended as they can irritate the skin and delay healing. The cord typically falls off naturally within 1 to 2 weeks. Question 5 A nurse is assessing a client in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output? A. Shivering B. Oliguria C. Bradypnea D. Constricted pupils Correct Answer: B Rationale: Decreased cardiac output results in diminished systemic tissue perfusion. When arterial blood flow to the kidneys drops, renal perfusion declines, directly resulting in oliguria (low urine output). Other clinical indicators include hypotension, tachycardia, and cold, clammy extremities. Question 6 A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage after an explosion at a factory. Which client should the nurse identify as the priority? A. A client with massive head trauma. B. A client with full-thickness burns to the face and trunk. C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock. D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity. Correct Answer: C Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, disaster triage principles dictate prioritizing clients who have life-threatening injuries but an excellent chance of survival if stabilized immediately (Red Tag). A client in hypovolemic shock can be saved with immediate fluid resuscitation. Clients with massive head trauma or near-total body full-thickness burns are classified as expectant (Black Tag) due to a poor prognosis, while stable fractures are deferred (Yellow Tag). Question 7 A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. A client with an ileal conduit and mucus in the pouch. B. A client with an arteriovenous fistula and a palpable vibration. C. A client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow. D. A client who had a transurethral resection of the prostate and has red-tinged urine. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow in a patient undergoing peritoneal dialysis is an early hallmark indicator of peritonitis, a severe and potentially life-threatening intra-abdominal infection. This requires immediate fluid sampling, culture, and antibiotic intervention. Mucus in an ileal conduit, a palpable thrill over an AV fistula, and pink/red-tinged urine post-TURP are normal, expected findings. Question 8 A nurse is caring for a client who just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which is an appropriate nursing intervention? A. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring. B. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation level. C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. D. Encourage foods high in potassium. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that frequently causes "first-dose hypotension." This sudden drop in blood pressure places the patient at high risk for orthostatic dizziness, lightheadedness, and falls. Standby assistance during ambulation is a vital fall-prevention safety measure. Encouraging high-potassium foods is contraindicated because ACE inhibitors promote potassium retention, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Question 9 A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations on the tracing. What do these findings signify? A. Fetal hypoxia B. Abruptio placentae C. Post-maturity D. Head compression Correct Answer: D Rationale: Early decelerations are benign, synchronous decreases in the fetal heart rate caused by transient fetal head compression during uterine contractions. They are a reassuring finding that does not indicate hypoxia, placental abruption, or distress, and they require no specific medical intervention. Question 10 A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an absolute indication for the initiation of hemodialysis? A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min B. BUN of 16 mg/dL C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL D. Serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL Correct Answer: A Rationale: A GFR below 15 mL/min signifies Stage 5 Chronic Kidney Disease (End-Stage Renal Disease), meaning the kidneys have lost nearly all filtering capacity. At this threshold, renal replacement therapy (hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis) is required to sustain life. The other listed laboratory findings fall within normal physiological limits. Question 11 A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer. B. Move the probe site every 3 hours. C. Heat the skin for one minute prior to placing the probe. D. Place the sensor on the index finger. Correct Answer: C Rationale: Warming the site for approximately one minute prior to applying a pulse oximetry sensor promotes localized vasodilation, enhancing peripheral arterial blood flow and ensuring a clean, highly accurate plethysmographic signal. To prevent skin breakdown or thermal injury, sensors are typically rotated every 4 hours rather than every 3, and infant sensors are wrapped around the foot or great toe rather than a single finger. Question 12 A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? A. A client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior. B. A newly admitted client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months. C. A client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol two hours ago for increased anxiety. D. A client who is scheduled to receive their first ECT treatment today. Correct Answer: A Rationale: Under safety and legal mandates, a client placed in physical restraints requires continuous monitoring and immediate, frequent assessments to ensure airway patency, maintain physical safety, check neurovascular status, and evaluate for release criteria. Question 13 A nurse working at a clinic is teaching a group of pregnant clients about non-pharmacological pain management. Which of the following statements by the nurse provides an accurate description of using hypnosis during labor? A. Hypnosis focuses on biofeedback as a relaxation technique. B. Hypnosis promotes increased control over pain perception during contractions. C. Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor. D. Hypnosis provides passive instruction to eliminate all pain. Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hypnosis during childbirth functions by altering cognitive focus, allowing the laboring client to achieve deep relaxation and exert greater psychological control over how uterine contraction pain is perceived and managed. It does not completely eliminate physical stimuli but reframes the experience to decrease panic and discomfort. Question 14 A nurse in a county jail health clinic is leading a group therapy session. A client incarcerated for theft states, "I think people out there are just lazy and should have to earn their money honestly." The nurse should identify this statement as an example of which defense mechanism? A. Rationalization B. Denial C. Suppression D. Reaction formation Correct Answer: D Rationale: Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual addresses unacceptable or anxiety-inducing impulses by expressing the exact opposite behavior, thought, or attitude. In this scenario, the client consciously denounces thieves and praises honest work to distance themselves from their own unlawful actions. Question 15 A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a strict contraindication to this medication? A. Glaucoma B. Hypertension C. Polycythemia D. Migraine headaches Correct Answer: A Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is a potent vasodilator. Vasodilators cause blood vessels to expand, which can significantly raise intraocular pressure. Consequently, it is strictly contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, particularly closed-angle glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition and damage the optic nerve. Question 16 A nurse is caring for a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Draw a troponin level every four hours indefinitely. B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours routinely. C. Provide oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at all times. =D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Correct Answer: D Rationale: Initiating an early, structured cardiac rehabilitation program consult is essential for post-myocardial infarction patients to safely restore functional capacity, manage risk factors, promote lifestyle modifications, and decrease the risk of future cardiovascular events.