NUR 504
EXAM 6
Advanced Health Assessment
Questions And Answers Plus Rationales
Instant Pdf Download | 2026
THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS :
➢ Printable + Tablet-friendly Pdf
➢ Latest Qs & Ans 2026/27 Update
➢ Qs & Answers Plus Rationales
,1. A 65-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes and
hypertension presents for a routine annual exam. His blood pressure
today is 148/88 mmHg. He has no symptoms. His home BP readings
over the past week average 135/82 mmHg. According to 2026
guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?
a) Start amlodipine 5 mg daily
b) Repeat BP in office in 2 weeks
c) Confirm with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM)
d) Increase his current lisinopril dose
Answer: c (Office BP may be elevated due to white-coat effect. ABPM or
home BP monitoring is recommended to confirm hypertension before
adjusting therapy.)
2. A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-week history of fatigue,
myalgias, and a rash on her face that worsens with sun exposure. On
exam, you note a malar rash sparing the nasolabial folds, oral ulcers,
and non-erosive arthritis of the hands. The most specific
autoantibody for this condition is:
a) Anti-CCP
b) Anti-dsDNA
c) Anti-SSA/Ro
d) Rheumatoid factor
Answer: b (Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE), especially with active renal disease. The
presentation meets SLE criteria.)
,3. A 72-year-old male with a history of Parkinson’s disease is
evaluated for a 3-month history of progressive difficulty walking.
He reports his feet feel “stuck to the floor” when he tries to initiate
walking, especially through doorways. This phenomenon is best
described as:
a) Festination
b) Freezing of gait
c) Retropulsion
d) Dystonic gait
Answer: b (Freezing of gait is a sudden, transient inability to move the
feet forward, often triggered by turning, narrow spaces, or dual-tasking;
common in advanced Parkinson’s.)
4. A 55-year-old female presents with acute-onset, severe, tearing
chest pain radiating to her back. On exam, her right arm BP is
180/90 mmHg, left arm BP is 100/60 mmHg. A decrescendo
diastolic murmur is heard at the left sternal border. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Aortic dissection with aortic regurgitation
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Pericarditis
Answer: b (Aortic dissection extending into the aortic root causes acute
aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur) and pulse differential.)
, 5. A 34-year-old G2P1 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a
blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg and 1+ proteinuria. She denies
headaches or visual changes. Her platelet count is 220,000/µL, AST
is 30 U/L. This is classified as:
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Preeclampsia without severe features
c) Severe preeclampsia
d) Chronic hypertension
Answer: b (BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria, no severe
features (BP <160/110, platelets normal, LFTs normal, no cerebral
symptoms).)
6. A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder presents
with a 2-day history of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back,
nausea, and vomiting. On exam, he has epigastric tenderness and
hypoactive bowel sounds. Serum lipase is 1,200 U/L. What is the
most common early complication in the first 48 hours?
a) Pancreatic pseudocyst
b) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
c) Chronic pancreatitis
d) Pancreatic necrosis
Answer: b (ARDS, acute kidney injury, and systemic inflammatory
response are early complications of severe acute pancreatitis. Pseudocyst
develops after 4 weeks.)
EXAM 6
Advanced Health Assessment
Questions And Answers Plus Rationales
Instant Pdf Download | 2026
THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS :
➢ Printable + Tablet-friendly Pdf
➢ Latest Qs & Ans 2026/27 Update
➢ Qs & Answers Plus Rationales
,1. A 65-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes and
hypertension presents for a routine annual exam. His blood pressure
today is 148/88 mmHg. He has no symptoms. His home BP readings
over the past week average 135/82 mmHg. According to 2026
guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?
a) Start amlodipine 5 mg daily
b) Repeat BP in office in 2 weeks
c) Confirm with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM)
d) Increase his current lisinopril dose
Answer: c (Office BP may be elevated due to white-coat effect. ABPM or
home BP monitoring is recommended to confirm hypertension before
adjusting therapy.)
2. A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-week history of fatigue,
myalgias, and a rash on her face that worsens with sun exposure. On
exam, you note a malar rash sparing the nasolabial folds, oral ulcers,
and non-erosive arthritis of the hands. The most specific
autoantibody for this condition is:
a) Anti-CCP
b) Anti-dsDNA
c) Anti-SSA/Ro
d) Rheumatoid factor
Answer: b (Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE), especially with active renal disease. The
presentation meets SLE criteria.)
,3. A 72-year-old male with a history of Parkinson’s disease is
evaluated for a 3-month history of progressive difficulty walking.
He reports his feet feel “stuck to the floor” when he tries to initiate
walking, especially through doorways. This phenomenon is best
described as:
a) Festination
b) Freezing of gait
c) Retropulsion
d) Dystonic gait
Answer: b (Freezing of gait is a sudden, transient inability to move the
feet forward, often triggered by turning, narrow spaces, or dual-tasking;
common in advanced Parkinson’s.)
4. A 55-year-old female presents with acute-onset, severe, tearing
chest pain radiating to her back. On exam, her right arm BP is
180/90 mmHg, left arm BP is 100/60 mmHg. A decrescendo
diastolic murmur is heard at the left sternal border. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Aortic dissection with aortic regurgitation
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Pericarditis
Answer: b (Aortic dissection extending into the aortic root causes acute
aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur) and pulse differential.)
, 5. A 34-year-old G2P1 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a
blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg and 1+ proteinuria. She denies
headaches or visual changes. Her platelet count is 220,000/µL, AST
is 30 U/L. This is classified as:
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Preeclampsia without severe features
c) Severe preeclampsia
d) Chronic hypertension
Answer: b (BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria, no severe
features (BP <160/110, platelets normal, LFTs normal, no cerebral
symptoms).)
6. A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder presents
with a 2-day history of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back,
nausea, and vomiting. On exam, he has epigastric tenderness and
hypoactive bowel sounds. Serum lipase is 1,200 U/L. What is the
most common early complication in the first 48 hours?
a) Pancreatic pseudocyst
b) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
c) Chronic pancreatitis
d) Pancreatic necrosis
Answer: b (ARDS, acute kidney injury, and systemic inflammatory
response are early complications of severe acute pancreatitis. Pseudocyst
develops after 4 weeks.)
