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NSG 100 Exam 2 – Introduction to Nursing Concepts Questions And Answers Plus Rationales | Qs & Ans 2026 | Instant Pdf Download

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NSG 100 Exam 2 – Introduction to Nursing Concepts Questions And Answers Plus Rationales | Qs & Ans 2026 | Instant Pdf Download

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NSG 100 Exam 2 – Introduction to Nursing
Concepts Questions And Answers Plus
Rationales | Qs & Ans 2026 | Instant Pdf
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1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s blood pressure and obtains a

reading of 148/94 mmHg. The patient has no history of
hypertension. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Document the reading as normal

B. Recheck the blood pressure in the opposite arm after 5 minutes of rest

C. Notify the provider immediately

D. Administer an antihypertensive medication

Answer: B

Rationale: A single elevated reading may be due to anxiety, activity, or

improper technique. Recheck after rest. Confirm elevation before

notifying provider.

2. A patient is placed on contact precautions for methicillin-

resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which personal protective

equipment (PPE) is required for routine patient care?

A. Surgical mask only

B. N95 respirator

,C. Gown and gloves

D. Gown, gloves, and face shield

Answer: C
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves. Mask is for

droplet/airborne precautions.

3. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. The
patient asks why sterile technique is necessary. Which response is

correct?

A. “It prevents you from feeling pain during insertion.”

B. “It reduces the risk of introducing bacteria into your bladder.”

C. “It is required by law but not scientifically necessary.”

D. “It helps the catheter slide in more easily.”

Answer: B
Rationale: Sterile technique prevents catheter-associated urinary tract

infection (CAUTI), the most common healthcare-associated infection.

4. A patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min. Which

finding indicates adequate oxygenation?

A. SpO2 88%

B. Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min

C. SpO2 94%

D. Cyanosis of the nail beds

,Answer: C

Rationale: Target SpO2 is usually 92–98% for most patients. 88%

indicates hypoxemia. Cyanosis and tachypnea are signs of hypoxia.

5. A nurse is teaching a patient how to use a walker. Which

instruction is correct?

A. “Move the walker forward, then step with your weaker leg first.”
B. “Move the walker forward, then step with your stronger leg first.”

C. “Keep the walker at waist height.”

D. “Use the walker only on stairs.”

Answer: A

Rationale: Move walker forward, step with weaker (affected) leg, then

bring stronger leg forward. Elbows should be slightly bent (not waist

height).

6. A patient has an order for “NPO after midnight” for a

colonoscopy. What does this mean?

A. Nothing by mouth including water and medications

B. Clear liquids are allowed until 6 AM

C. Only water is allowed

D. No food, but oral medications are allowed with small sips of water

Answer: A

Rationale: NPO means nothing by mouth, including water, food, and

oral medications unless specified otherwise.

, 7. A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on

the sacrum. Which finding is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure

injury?
A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness

B. Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis

C. Full-thickness skin loss with visible fat
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone

Answer: B

Rationale: Stage 2: partial-thickness loss of epidermis/dermis, shallow

open ulcer or intact/ruptured blister. Stage 1: intact nonblanchable

erythema.

8. A patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent

suction. The nurse checks placement by aspirating gastric contents.
Which pH finding confirms gastric placement?

A. pH 2

B. pH 6

C. pH 7

D. pH 8

Answer: A

Rationale: Gastric aspirate pH is normally acidic (1–4). pH >5 suggests

intestinal or respiratory placement.

9. A nurse is assessing a patient’s pain using the PQRST method.

What does the “P” stand for?

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