NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm –
Chamberlain Real Exam Questions & Verified
Answers - Pass First Attempt Guaranteed
Question 1
Topic: Opioid Agonist-Antagonists — Do opioid agonist-antagonists have high or low potential
for abuse?
A) High potential for abuse, similar to full opioid agonists
B) Low potential for abuse when compared with opioid agonists
C) No potential for abuse
D) Variable potential depending on route of administration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opioid agonist-antagonists (such as buprenorphine and pentazocine) have a lower
potential for abuse compared to full opioid agonists due to their partial agonist activity and
ceiling effect.
Question 2
Topic: Buprenorphine — If you switch a patient from oxycodone to buprenorphine quickly, what
may we expect to see?
A) Enhanced analgesic effect
B) No change in symptoms
C) Precipitated withdrawal
D) Increased sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial agonist with high receptor affinity. If given to a patient
physically dependent on a full agonist (like oxycodone), it can displace the full agonist and
precipitate acute withdrawal symptoms.
Question 3
Topic: Tramadol — What level of pain is tramadol approved for?
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A) Mild pain
B) Moderate to moderately severe pain
C) Severe pain only
D) Chronic neuropathic pain only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tramadol is indicated for the management of moderate to moderately severe pain. It
is not typically used for severe pain, which may require stronger opioids.
Question 4
Topic: Tramadol — What schedule is tramadol classified as?
A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tramadol is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance due to its lower potential
for abuse compared to Schedule II and III opioids.
Question 5
Topic: Tramadol — What population should tramadol be AVOIDED in?
A) Patients with hypertension
B) Patients with epilepsy, neurologic disorders, and elderly
C) Patients with diabetes
D) Patients with asthma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tramadol lowers the seizure threshold and should be avoided in patients with
epilepsy, neurologic disorders, and the elderly who are at increased risk for seizures and adverse
effects.
Question 6
Topic: Tramadol — What drugs should be avoided for patients taking tramadol?
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A) Antihypertensives
B) CNS depressants, MAOIs, SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, triptans
C) Antibiotics
D) Antacids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tramadol interacts with CNS depressants (increasing sedation), MAOIs (risk of
serotonin syndrome), SSRIs/SNRIs/TCAs/triptans (risk of serotonin syndrome and seizures).
Question 7
Topic: Opioid Crisis — What government branch declared the opioid crisis a public health
emergency?
A) Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C) Health and Human Services (HHS)
D) Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) declared the opioid crisis a
public health emergency, leading to coordinated federal efforts to address the epidemic.
Question 8
Topic: HHS Priorities — What are the top 5 priorities of HHS regarding the opioid crisis? (Select
All That Apply)
A) Improving access to treatment and recovery services
B) Promoting use of overdose-reversing drugs
C) Legalizing all opioids for recreational use
D) Strengthening understanding through better public health surveillance
E) Providing support for cutting-edge research on pain and addiction
F) Advancing better practices for pain management
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E, and F
Rationale: The five priorities are: improving treatment access, promoting overdose-reversing
drugs, strengthening surveillance, supporting research, and advancing pain management
practices. Legalization is not a priority.
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Question 9
Topic: Opioid Prescribing Guidelines — What provisions were made to the guidelines for
prescribing opioids to non-cancer patients? (Select All That Apply)
A) Using opioids only after non-opioid analgesics or conservative methods have failed
B) Discussing benefits and risks for long-term opioids with patient
C) Using multiple prescribers and pharmacies to prevent diversion
D) Ensuring comprehensive follow-up to assess efficacy and monitor for abuse
E) Stopping opioids after opioid rotation produces inadequate benefits
F) Fully documenting the entire process
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E, and F
Rationale: Guidelines recommend one prescriber and one pharmacy, not multiple. All other
options are correct provisions for responsible opioid prescribing.
Question 10
Topic: Opioid Initiation — When prescribing opioids, should a patient be initially started on IR or
ER?
A) Extended-release (ER) for steady pain control
B) Immediate-release (IR) at the lowest dose for the shortest amount of time
C) Either is acceptable
D) Only non-opioid analgesics initially
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guidelines recommend starting with immediate-release opioids at the lowest
effective dose for the shortest duration to minimize risk of dependence and adverse effects.
Question 11
Topic: Opioid Exposure — How are patients initially exposed to opioids?
A) Only through recreational use
B) Either recreationally (illicitly) or in the context of pain management in a medical setting
C) Only through prescription from providers
D) Only through emergency department visits
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