Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor
Practice Questions and Answers Updated 2026 |
Complete ATI NCLEX Readiness Study Guide with
Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health, Fundamentals, Leadership &
Management, Community Health & NGN Clinical
Judgment Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at high risk for falls. Which intervention is
the priority?
A. Place a fall risk sign on the door. B. Keep the bed in the lowest position. C. Apply a
waist restraint. D. Ensure the call light is within reach.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position minimizes the distance of a potential
fall, directly reducing injury risk, making it the priority safety intervention.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile. Which action
is required for infection control?
A. Use an alcohol-based hand rub. B. Wear a fitted N95 respirator. C. Wash hands with
soap and water. D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wash hands with soap and water.
Rationale: C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand rubs; mechanical
friction with soap and water is required to remove them effectively.
Question 3: A client with heart failure reports sudden shortness of breath. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema. B. Oxygen saturation of 88%. C. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24
hours. D. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxia, which is a life-threatening
airway and breathing compromise requiring immediate intervention.
Question 4: A nurse is teaching a client with COPD about oxygen therapy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. I will increase the oxygen flow if I feel short of breath. B. I should use my oxygen at 4
L/min via nasal cannula. C. I will use a humidifier with my oxygen to prevent dry mucous
membranes. D. I can smoke as long as I am not wearing the oxygen.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a humidifier with my oxygen to prevent dry mucous
membranes.
,Rationale: Oxygen is drying to the respiratory tract, so a humidifier is recommended.
Clients should never adjust flow rates or smoke near oxygen.
Question 5: A client taking digoxin reports nausea and seeing yellow halos around
lights. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer an antiemetic. B. Check the client's apical pulse and hold the dose. C.
Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Document the findings and reassess in 4 hours.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check the client's apical pulse and hold the dose.
Rationale: Nausea and visual disturbances are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. The
nurse must assess the apical pulse and hold the medication to prevent fatal
arrhythmias.
Question 6: Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative client?
A. Placing a pillow under the client's knees. B. Encouraging early and frequent
ambulation. C. Applying warm compresses to the calves. D. Restricting fluid intake to
reduce edema.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encouraging early and frequent ambulation.
Rationale: Early ambulation promotes venous return and prevents blood stasis, which
is the most effective non-pharmacological method for DVT prevention.
Question 7: A client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion develops chills
and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate. B. Administer diphenhydramine. C. Stop the transfusion
immediately. D. Notify the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Chills and back pain indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
immediate priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent further administration of
incompatible blood.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about foot care. Which
statement requires further teaching?
A. I will wash my feet daily with warm water. B. I will cut my toenails straight across. C. I
will use a heating pad to warm my feet if they are cold. D. I will inspect my feet daily for
cuts or blisters.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a heating pad to warm my feet if they are cold.
Rationale: Clients with diabetes often have decreased peripheral sensation, making
them highly susceptible to burns from heating pads.
,Question 9: A client with asthma has a peak expiratory flow rate in the yellow zone.
What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
A. Go to the emergency department immediately. B. Use a rescue inhaler as prescribed
and monitor symptoms. C. Continue current medications without changes. D. Lie flat
and take deep breaths.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use a rescue inhaler as prescribed and monitor symptoms.
Rationale: The yellow zone indicates caution (50-80% of personal best). The client
should use a short-acting beta-agonist and monitor for improvement or worsening.
Question 10: After inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube, which method is the gold
standard for verifying placement?
A. Auscultating an air bolus over the epigastrium. B. Testing the pH of the aspirate. C.
Observing for bubbling in the water seal. D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
Rationale: An abdominal X-ray is the most reliable and definitive method (gold
standard) to confirm NG tube placement before initiating feedings or medications.
Question 11: A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL and
is awake but confused. What is the priority intervention?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM. B. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates orally.
C. Start an IV infusion of regular insulin. D. Recheck the blood glucose in 30 minutes.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates orally.
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the rule of 15 applies: give 15
grams of fast-acting carbs orally to rapidly raise blood glucose levels.
Question 12: A nurse reviews a client's lab results and notes a potassium level of
6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG finding is expected?
A. Prominent U waves. B. Tall, peaked T waves. C. Prolonged PR interval. D. Shortened
QT interval.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tall, peaked T waves.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia classically presents with tall, peaked T waves on an ECG,
which can progress to widened QRS complexes and ventricular fibrillation.
Question 13: A client begins having a tonic-clonic seizure in bed. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting. B. Restrain the client's limbs to prevent
injury. C. Turn the client to the side. D. Administer IV lorazepam immediately.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Turn the client to the side.
, Rationale: Turning the client to the side maintains a patent airway and allows
secretions to drain, preventing aspiration during the seizure.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The water seal
chamber shows continuous bubbling. What does this indicate?
A. Normal expected finding. B. An air leak in the system. C. The lung has fully re-
expanded. D. Excessive suction pressure.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. An air leak in the system.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the
chest tube system or the client's pleural space, requiring investigation.
Question 15: Which action is appropriate when performing tracheostomy care?
A. Clean the stoma from the top down. B. Use hydrogen peroxide to clean the inner
cannula. C. Secure the tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones. D. Cut the
tracheostomy ties at a 45-degree angle.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use hydrogen peroxide to clean the inner cannula.
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide is used to loosen secretions on the inner cannula,
followed by a saline rinse. Ties should be changed one at a time, not secured before
removal.
Question 16: A client with 40% total body surface area burns is prescribed IV fluids.
Which formula guides this resuscitation?
A. Parkland formula. B. Rule of Nines. C. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation. D. Glasgow
Coma Scale.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Parkland formula.
Rationale: The Parkland formula calculates the volume of IV fluids required for the first
24 hours of burn resuscitation based on weight and burn percentage.
Question 17: A client presents with sudden right-sided weakness and slurred
speech. What is the priority diagnostic test?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain. B. Non-contrast computed
tomography (CT) of the head. C. Carotid ultrasound. D. Electroencephalogram (EEG).
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) of the head.
Rationale: A non-contrast CT is the priority to rapidly differentiate between ischemic
and hemorrhagic stroke, determining eligibility for thrombolytic therapy.
Question 18: A client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction reports chest
pain rated 8/10. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Aspirin. B. Morphine. C. Nitroglycerin. D. Clopidogrel.
Practice Questions and Answers Updated 2026 |
Complete ATI NCLEX Readiness Study Guide with
Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-
Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health, Fundamentals, Leadership &
Management, Community Health & NGN Clinical
Judgment Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at high risk for falls. Which intervention is
the priority?
A. Place a fall risk sign on the door. B. Keep the bed in the lowest position. C. Apply a
waist restraint. D. Ensure the call light is within reach.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position minimizes the distance of a potential
fall, directly reducing injury risk, making it the priority safety intervention.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile. Which action
is required for infection control?
A. Use an alcohol-based hand rub. B. Wear a fitted N95 respirator. C. Wash hands with
soap and water. D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wash hands with soap and water.
Rationale: C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand rubs; mechanical
friction with soap and water is required to remove them effectively.
Question 3: A client with heart failure reports sudden shortness of breath. Which
assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema. B. Oxygen saturation of 88%. C. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24
hours. D. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxia, which is a life-threatening
airway and breathing compromise requiring immediate intervention.
Question 4: A nurse is teaching a client with COPD about oxygen therapy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. I will increase the oxygen flow if I feel short of breath. B. I should use my oxygen at 4
L/min via nasal cannula. C. I will use a humidifier with my oxygen to prevent dry mucous
membranes. D. I can smoke as long as I am not wearing the oxygen.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a humidifier with my oxygen to prevent dry mucous
membranes.
,Rationale: Oxygen is drying to the respiratory tract, so a humidifier is recommended.
Clients should never adjust flow rates or smoke near oxygen.
Question 5: A client taking digoxin reports nausea and seeing yellow halos around
lights. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer an antiemetic. B. Check the client's apical pulse and hold the dose. C.
Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Document the findings and reassess in 4 hours.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Check the client's apical pulse and hold the dose.
Rationale: Nausea and visual disturbances are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. The
nurse must assess the apical pulse and hold the medication to prevent fatal
arrhythmias.
Question 6: Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative client?
A. Placing a pillow under the client's knees. B. Encouraging early and frequent
ambulation. C. Applying warm compresses to the calves. D. Restricting fluid intake to
reduce edema.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Encouraging early and frequent ambulation.
Rationale: Early ambulation promotes venous return and prevents blood stasis, which
is the most effective non-pharmacological method for DVT prevention.
Question 7: A client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion develops chills
and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate. B. Administer diphenhydramine. C. Stop the transfusion
immediately. D. Notify the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
Rationale: Chills and back pain indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
immediate priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent further administration of
incompatible blood.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about foot care. Which
statement requires further teaching?
A. I will wash my feet daily with warm water. B. I will cut my toenails straight across. C. I
will use a heating pad to warm my feet if they are cold. D. I will inspect my feet daily for
cuts or blisters.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a heating pad to warm my feet if they are cold.
Rationale: Clients with diabetes often have decreased peripheral sensation, making
them highly susceptible to burns from heating pads.
,Question 9: A client with asthma has a peak expiratory flow rate in the yellow zone.
What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
A. Go to the emergency department immediately. B. Use a rescue inhaler as prescribed
and monitor symptoms. C. Continue current medications without changes. D. Lie flat
and take deep breaths.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use a rescue inhaler as prescribed and monitor symptoms.
Rationale: The yellow zone indicates caution (50-80% of personal best). The client
should use a short-acting beta-agonist and monitor for improvement or worsening.
Question 10: After inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube, which method is the gold
standard for verifying placement?
A. Auscultating an air bolus over the epigastrium. B. Testing the pH of the aspirate. C.
Observing for bubbling in the water seal. D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Obtaining an abdominal X-ray.
Rationale: An abdominal X-ray is the most reliable and definitive method (gold
standard) to confirm NG tube placement before initiating feedings or medications.
Question 11: A client with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL and
is awake but confused. What is the priority intervention?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM. B. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates orally.
C. Start an IV infusion of regular insulin. D. Recheck the blood glucose in 30 minutes.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates orally.
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the rule of 15 applies: give 15
grams of fast-acting carbs orally to rapidly raise blood glucose levels.
Question 12: A nurse reviews a client's lab results and notes a potassium level of
6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG finding is expected?
A. Prominent U waves. B. Tall, peaked T waves. C. Prolonged PR interval. D. Shortened
QT interval.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tall, peaked T waves.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia classically presents with tall, peaked T waves on an ECG,
which can progress to widened QRS complexes and ventricular fibrillation.
Question 13: A client begins having a tonic-clonic seizure in bed. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting. B. Restrain the client's limbs to prevent
injury. C. Turn the client to the side. D. Administer IV lorazepam immediately.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Turn the client to the side.
, Rationale: Turning the client to the side maintains a patent airway and allows
secretions to drain, preventing aspiration during the seizure.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The water seal
chamber shows continuous bubbling. What does this indicate?
A. Normal expected finding. B. An air leak in the system. C. The lung has fully re-
expanded. D. Excessive suction pressure.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. An air leak in the system.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the
chest tube system or the client's pleural space, requiring investigation.
Question 15: Which action is appropriate when performing tracheostomy care?
A. Clean the stoma from the top down. B. Use hydrogen peroxide to clean the inner
cannula. C. Secure the tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones. D. Cut the
tracheostomy ties at a 45-degree angle.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Use hydrogen peroxide to clean the inner cannula.
Rationale: Hydrogen peroxide is used to loosen secretions on the inner cannula,
followed by a saline rinse. Ties should be changed one at a time, not secured before
removal.
Question 16: A client with 40% total body surface area burns is prescribed IV fluids.
Which formula guides this resuscitation?
A. Parkland formula. B. Rule of Nines. C. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation. D. Glasgow
Coma Scale.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Parkland formula.
Rationale: The Parkland formula calculates the volume of IV fluids required for the first
24 hours of burn resuscitation based on weight and burn percentage.
Question 17: A client presents with sudden right-sided weakness and slurred
speech. What is the priority diagnostic test?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain. B. Non-contrast computed
tomography (CT) of the head. C. Carotid ultrasound. D. Electroencephalogram (EEG).
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) of the head.
Rationale: A non-contrast CT is the priority to rapidly differentiate between ischemic
and hemorrhagic stroke, determining eligibility for thrombolytic therapy.
Question 18: A client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction reports chest
pain rated 8/10. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Aspirin. B. Morphine. C. Nitroglycerin. D. Clopidogrel.
