RN VATI FUNDAMENTALS 2019 ASSESSMENT PRACTICE
EXAM 100 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES 2026 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW GUIDE A+
ALREADY GRADED LATEST VERSION
RN VATI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A nurse enters a client's room and discovers a fire in a wastebasket. What action should the nurse
take first?
A. Extinguish the fire
B. Activate the alarm
C. Rescue the client
D. Close the room door
Answer: C
Rationale: The RACE protocol begins with Rescue, followed by Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate.
Client safety is the priority.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with pain rated 5/10
B. Client with oxygen saturation 88%
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client requesting a blanket
Answer: B
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation take priority under ABC principles.
3. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
B. Respiratory rate 10/min after opioid administration
C. Heart rate 82/min
D. Blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10/min requires prompt
assessment.
,4. Which action demonstrates proper hand hygiene?
A. Washing for 5 seconds
B. Using cold water only
C. Scrubbing for at least 20 seconds
D. Drying hands on uniform
Answer: C
Rationale: Effective hand hygiene requires friction and adequate duration.
5. Which client can be assigned to an assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Newly admitted client
B. Client requiring teaching
C. Stable client needing bathing assistance
D. Client receiving blood transfusion
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine, non-assessment tasks may be delegated to APs.
6. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Gloves and gown
C. Surgical mask only
D. Eye protection only
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown upon room entry.
7. Which statement reflects therapeutic communication?
A. "Everything will be fine."
B. "Why do you feel that way?"
C. "Tell me more about your concerns."
D. "You shouldn't worry."
Answer: C
Rationale: Open-ended statements encourage client expression.
8. Which position promotes lung expansion?
, A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High-Fowler's
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler's facilitates diaphragmatic expansion.
9. What is the most accurate method for verifying client identity?
A. Room number
B. Client's diagnosis
C. Two approved identifiers
D. Family confirmation
Answer: C
Rationale: National safety standards require two identifiers.
10. Which action prevents pressure injuries?
A. Reposition every 8 hours
B. Massage reddened areas
C. Reposition every 2 hours
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure.
Questions 11–20
11. Which laboratory value should the nurse report immediately?
A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Chloride 102 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
12. Which finding indicates fluid volume deficit?
EXAM 100 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES 2026 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW GUIDE A+
ALREADY GRADED LATEST VERSION
RN VATI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A nurse enters a client's room and discovers a fire in a wastebasket. What action should the nurse
take first?
A. Extinguish the fire
B. Activate the alarm
C. Rescue the client
D. Close the room door
Answer: C
Rationale: The RACE protocol begins with Rescue, followed by Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate.
Client safety is the priority.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with pain rated 5/10
B. Client with oxygen saturation 88%
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client requesting a blanket
Answer: B
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation take priority under ABC principles.
3. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
B. Respiratory rate 10/min after opioid administration
C. Heart rate 82/min
D. Blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10/min requires prompt
assessment.
,4. Which action demonstrates proper hand hygiene?
A. Washing for 5 seconds
B. Using cold water only
C. Scrubbing for at least 20 seconds
D. Drying hands on uniform
Answer: C
Rationale: Effective hand hygiene requires friction and adequate duration.
5. Which client can be assigned to an assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Newly admitted client
B. Client requiring teaching
C. Stable client needing bathing assistance
D. Client receiving blood transfusion
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine, non-assessment tasks may be delegated to APs.
6. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Gloves and gown
C. Surgical mask only
D. Eye protection only
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and gown upon room entry.
7. Which statement reflects therapeutic communication?
A. "Everything will be fine."
B. "Why do you feel that way?"
C. "Tell me more about your concerns."
D. "You shouldn't worry."
Answer: C
Rationale: Open-ended statements encourage client expression.
8. Which position promotes lung expansion?
, A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High-Fowler's
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler's facilitates diaphragmatic expansion.
9. What is the most accurate method for verifying client identity?
A. Room number
B. Client's diagnosis
C. Two approved identifiers
D. Family confirmation
Answer: C
Rationale: National safety standards require two identifiers.
10. Which action prevents pressure injuries?
A. Reposition every 8 hours
B. Massage reddened areas
C. Reposition every 2 hours
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure.
Questions 11–20
11. Which laboratory value should the nurse report immediately?
A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
B. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Chloride 102 mEq/L
D. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases risk for cardiac dysrhythmias.
12. Which finding indicates fluid volume deficit?
