1
HESI MATERNITY OB EXAM VERSION 1 2026/2027 | Latest
Version | All 55 Questions & Correct Answers | Already
Graded A+ (Score 1292) | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Prenatal Assessment & Antepartum Complications (Q1-14)
Q1. A pregnant patient's last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2026.
Using Naegele's rule, what is the patient's estimated due date (EDD)?
A. October 3, 2026
B. October 10, 2026
C. October 17, 2026
D. November 17, 2026
C. October 17, 2026 [CORRECT]
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates EDD by adding 1 year, subtracting 3 months, and
adding 7 days to the LMP (January 10, 2026 + 1 year = January 10, 2027; minus 3
months = October 10, 2026; plus 7 days = October 17, 2026). Option A subtracts 7
days instead of adding. Option B omits the 7-day addition. Option D incorrectly adds
3 months.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A patient at 28 weeks gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. When
assessing fundal height, the nurse expects the fundal height to measure
approximately:
A. 20 cm
B. 24 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 32 cm
,2
C. 28 cm [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters approximates gestational age in weeks (±2
cm) between 20 and 36 weeks; at 28 weeks, the fundus should be approximately 28
cm. Option A is too low and may indicate intrauterine growth restriction. Option B is
below expected range. Option D is above expected and may indicate macrosomia or
polyhydramnios.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. A nurse is caring for a patient at 11 weeks gestation. Which device should the
nurse use to auscultate the fetal heart rate?
A. Fetoscope
B. Doppler ultrasound
C. Pinard horn
D. Standard stethoscope
B. Doppler ultrasound [CORRECT]
Rationale: The fetal heart rate is first auscultated with Doppler at 10-12 weeks
gestation; a fetoscope (Option A) is used at 18-20 weeks. Option C is a fetal
stethoscope used in later pregnancy. Option D cannot detect fetal heart tones this
early.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A patient at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg on two
occasions 4 hours apart. Urine dipstick shows no protein. Which diagnosis is most
appropriate?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. White coat hypertension
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B. Gestational hypertension [CORRECT]
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is defined as BP ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks
gestation without proteinuria. Option A requires hypertension before pregnancy or
before 20 weeks. Option C requires proteinuria ≥300 mg/24 hours or a
protein/creatinine ratio ≥0.3. Option D is not a clinical diagnosis used to rule out
hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. A patient at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 168/112
mmHg, 2+ proteinuria, a platelet count of 85,000/mm³, and epigastric pain. Which
finding confirms severe features of preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg with trace proteinuria
B. Blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg with 1+ proteinuria and mild headache
C. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg, thrombocytopenia <100,000, and elevated liver
enzymes
D. Blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg with 2+ proteinuria and mild ankle edema
C. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg, thrombocytopenia <100,000, and elevated
liver enzymes [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe features include BP ≥160/110, platelets <100,000, liver enzymes
>2× normal, pulmonary edema, cerebral/visual symptoms, or persistent epigastric
pain. Options A, B, and D describe mild preeclampsia or gestational hypertension
without severe features.
Correct Answer: C
Q6. A charge nurse on the antepartum unit is delegating tasks to an experienced
LPN. Which task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Developing an individualized teaching plan for a patient with gestational diabetes
B. Assessing a patient with severe preeclampsia for worsening neurologic symptoms
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C. Reinforcing prenatal vitamin teaching and obtaining a fetal heart rate using
Doppler on a stable patient
D. Interpreting a category II fetal heart rate tracing and notifying the provider
C. Reinforcing prenatal vitamin teaching and obtaining a fetal heart rate using
Doppler on a stable patient [CORRECT]
Rationale: The 2026 HESI delegation model permits experienced LPNs to reinforce
teaching and perform routine data collection (FHR via Doppler) for stable patients;
assessment, planning, and complex clinical judgment (Options A, B, and D) remain
within the RN scope.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. During the initial prenatal visit, which laboratory screening tests are standard for
all pregnant patients?
A. Amniocentesis and fetal echocardiography
B. Group B streptococcus culture and fetal fibronectin testing
C. Complete blood count, blood type with Rh factor, antibody screen, urinalysis,
rubella titer, hepatitis B surface antigen, HIV, and syphilis screening
D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein quad screen only
C. Complete blood count, blood type with Rh factor, antibody screen, urinalysis,
rubella titer, hepatitis B surface antigen, HIV, and syphilis screening [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard initial prenatal labs include CBC, blood type/Rh, antibody screen,
urinalysis, and infectious disease screening (rubella, hepatitis B, HIV, syphilis). Option
A includes diagnostic tests, not routine screening. Option B is performed later in
pregnancy (GBS at 35-37 weeks). Option D is a second-trimester screening test, not
initial.
Correct Answer: C
HESI MATERNITY OB EXAM VERSION 1 2026/2027 | Latest
Version | All 55 Questions & Correct Answers | Already
Graded A+ (Score 1292) | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Prenatal Assessment & Antepartum Complications (Q1-14)
Q1. A pregnant patient's last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2026.
Using Naegele's rule, what is the patient's estimated due date (EDD)?
A. October 3, 2026
B. October 10, 2026
C. October 17, 2026
D. November 17, 2026
C. October 17, 2026 [CORRECT]
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates EDD by adding 1 year, subtracting 3 months, and
adding 7 days to the LMP (January 10, 2026 + 1 year = January 10, 2027; minus 3
months = October 10, 2026; plus 7 days = October 17, 2026). Option A subtracts 7
days instead of adding. Option B omits the 7-day addition. Option D incorrectly adds
3 months.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A patient at 28 weeks gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. When
assessing fundal height, the nurse expects the fundal height to measure
approximately:
A. 20 cm
B. 24 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 32 cm
,2
C. 28 cm [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters approximates gestational age in weeks (±2
cm) between 20 and 36 weeks; at 28 weeks, the fundus should be approximately 28
cm. Option A is too low and may indicate intrauterine growth restriction. Option B is
below expected range. Option D is above expected and may indicate macrosomia or
polyhydramnios.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. A nurse is caring for a patient at 11 weeks gestation. Which device should the
nurse use to auscultate the fetal heart rate?
A. Fetoscope
B. Doppler ultrasound
C. Pinard horn
D. Standard stethoscope
B. Doppler ultrasound [CORRECT]
Rationale: The fetal heart rate is first auscultated with Doppler at 10-12 weeks
gestation; a fetoscope (Option A) is used at 18-20 weeks. Option C is a fetal
stethoscope used in later pregnancy. Option D cannot detect fetal heart tones this
early.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A patient at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg on two
occasions 4 hours apart. Urine dipstick shows no protein. Which diagnosis is most
appropriate?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. White coat hypertension
,3
B. Gestational hypertension [CORRECT]
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is defined as BP ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks
gestation without proteinuria. Option A requires hypertension before pregnancy or
before 20 weeks. Option C requires proteinuria ≥300 mg/24 hours or a
protein/creatinine ratio ≥0.3. Option D is not a clinical diagnosis used to rule out
hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. A patient at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 168/112
mmHg, 2+ proteinuria, a platelet count of 85,000/mm³, and epigastric pain. Which
finding confirms severe features of preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg with trace proteinuria
B. Blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg with 1+ proteinuria and mild headache
C. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg, thrombocytopenia <100,000, and elevated liver
enzymes
D. Blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg with 2+ proteinuria and mild ankle edema
C. Blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg, thrombocytopenia <100,000, and elevated
liver enzymes [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe features include BP ≥160/110, platelets <100,000, liver enzymes
>2× normal, pulmonary edema, cerebral/visual symptoms, or persistent epigastric
pain. Options A, B, and D describe mild preeclampsia or gestational hypertension
without severe features.
Correct Answer: C
Q6. A charge nurse on the antepartum unit is delegating tasks to an experienced
LPN. Which task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Developing an individualized teaching plan for a patient with gestational diabetes
B. Assessing a patient with severe preeclampsia for worsening neurologic symptoms
, 4
C. Reinforcing prenatal vitamin teaching and obtaining a fetal heart rate using
Doppler on a stable patient
D. Interpreting a category II fetal heart rate tracing and notifying the provider
C. Reinforcing prenatal vitamin teaching and obtaining a fetal heart rate using
Doppler on a stable patient [CORRECT]
Rationale: The 2026 HESI delegation model permits experienced LPNs to reinforce
teaching and perform routine data collection (FHR via Doppler) for stable patients;
assessment, planning, and complex clinical judgment (Options A, B, and D) remain
within the RN scope.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. During the initial prenatal visit, which laboratory screening tests are standard for
all pregnant patients?
A. Amniocentesis and fetal echocardiography
B. Group B streptococcus culture and fetal fibronectin testing
C. Complete blood count, blood type with Rh factor, antibody screen, urinalysis,
rubella titer, hepatitis B surface antigen, HIV, and syphilis screening
D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein quad screen only
C. Complete blood count, blood type with Rh factor, antibody screen, urinalysis,
rubella titer, hepatitis B surface antigen, HIV, and syphilis screening [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard initial prenatal labs include CBC, blood type/Rh, antibody screen,
urinalysis, and infectious disease screening (rubella, hepatitis B, HIV, syphilis). Option
A includes diagnostic tests, not routine screening. Option B is performed later in
pregnancy (GBS at 35-37 weeks). Option D is a second-trimester screening test, not
initial.
Correct Answer: C
