COLLEGE) NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM| N212
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!) — 200 Questions
Section 1: Cellular Adaptation and Injury (Questions 1-20)
1 A researcher is studying a population of hepatocytes exposed to a low-grade, persistent toxin that damages
mitochondria. Over time, the cells exhibit an increase in smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) and a decrease in
cytochrome c oxidase activity. Which cellular adaptation is most likely occurring?
A) Atrophy due to decreased ATP supply
B) Hypertrophy due to increased functional demand
C) Hyperplasia due to compensatory proliferation
D) Metaplasia due to reprogramming of gene expression
Answer: B
Rationale: The increase in SER and decreased cytochrome c oxidase activity suggest an adaptive response to
mitochondrial dysfunction. Hepatocytes are increasing SER (involved in detoxification) to handle the toxin, which
is a form of hypertrophy (increase in cell size and organelle content) to enhance function. Atrophy would involve a
decrease in cell size, not an increase in organelles. Hyperplasia would involve increased cell number, which is not
described. Metaplasia is a change in cell type, not an increase in organelle content within the same cell type.
2 In a study of myocardial ischemia, researchers observe that after 30 minutes of ischemia followed by
reperfusion, some cardiomyocytes exhibit contraction band necrosis while others show only reversible injury.
Which factor most likely determines whether a cardiomyocyte undergoes contraction band necrosis versus
reversible injury?
A) The degree of ATP depletion during ischemia
B) The presence of oxidative stress during reperfusion
C) The intracellular calcium concentration at the time of reperfusion
D) The activation of caspases during ischemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Contraction band necrosis is characteristic of reperfusion injury and is caused by a massive influx of
calcium into the cells upon reperfusion, leading to hypercontraction of myofibrils. The degree of ATP depletion (A)
influences reversible vs irreversible injury but not specifically contraction band necrosis. Oxidative stress (B)
contributes to reperfusion injury but is not the direct cause of contraction bands. Caspase activation (D) is
associated with apoptosis, not necrosis.
3 A pathologist examines a tissue biopsy from a patient with chronic gastric reflux. The biopsy shows that the
normal stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus has been replaced by columnar epithelium with goblet
cells. Which molecular mechanism is most directly responsible for this change?
A) Increased expression of anti-apoptotic proteins like Bcl-2
B) Epigenetic silencing of tumor suppressor genes
,C) Activation of transcription factors that alter cell-type-specific gene expression
D) Increased proliferation of basal cells due to growth factor release
Answer: C
Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. It occurs due to
reprogramming of stem cells or dedifferentiated cells, driven by changes in transcription factor expression (e.g.,
CDX2 in intestinal metaplasia). Anti-apoptotic proteins (A) and tumor suppressor silencing (B) are associated with
cancer development, not metaplasia directly. Increased proliferation (D) may occur but does not explain the change
in cell type.
4 A laboratory experiment exposes cultured renal tubular epithelial cells to a high concentration of glucose for 48
hours. The cells show increased expression of fibronectin and collagen IV, and activation of the hexosamine
pathway. Which cellular adaptation is being induced?
A) Atrophy due to osmotic stress
B) Hypertrophy due to increased matrix production
C) Hyperplasia due to glucose-induced mitogenesis
D) Dysplasia due to abnormal differentiation
Answer: B
Rationale: High glucose stimulates mesangial cells and tubular epithelial cells to produce extracellular matrix
components (fibronectin, collagen IV), leading to cell and tissue hypertrophy. This is a common adaptation in
diabetic nephropathy. Atrophy would involve cell shrinkage. Hyperplasia would involve increased cell number, but
the description focuses on matrix production, not proliferation. Dysplasia implies abnormal cell morphology, which
is not described.
5 A researcher is investigating a novel compound that inhibits the mitochondrial permeability transition pore
(MPTP). In a model of hepatic ischemia-reperfusion injury, administration of this compound significantly
reduces the release of cytochrome c and AIF into the cytosol. Which type of cell death is most likely being
prevented by this compound?
A) Necrosis due to ATP depletion
B) Apoptosis via the intrinsic pathway
C) Necroptosis mediated by RIPK1/RIPK3
D) Autophagy-dependent cell death
Answer: B
Rationale: The mitochondrial permeability transition pore opening leads to release of cytochrome c and AIF, which
activate the intrinsic apoptotic pathway. Inhibiting MPTP prevents apoptosis. Necrosis (A) is typically associated
with ATP depletion and cell swelling, not cytochrome c release. Necroptosis (C) is a programmed necrosis that can
be independent of MPTP, and autophagy (D) involves lysosomal degradation, not cytochrome c release.
6 In a patient with prolonged obstructive jaundice, hepatocytes in zone 1 (periportal) show accumulation of bile
pigments and swelling of the endoplasmic reticulum. Which pattern of cell injury is most consistent with these
findings?
A) Hydropic change due to failure of the Na+/K+ ATPase
B) Steatosis due to impaired lipid metabolism
C) Pigment accumulation due to impaired excretion
D) Fibrinoid necrosis due to immune complex deposition
Answer: C
Rationale: Obstructive jaundice leads to accumulation of bile pigments (bilirubin) in hepatocytes, especially in
periportal regions. This is a form of intracellular accumulation, not a degenerative change like hydropic change (A)
,or steatosis (B). Fibrinoid necrosis (D) is seen in blood vessels in conditions like hypertension, not in bile stasis.
7 A researcher treats cultured neurons with a low dose of a toxin that causes mild, sustained elevation of
intracellular calcium. After 24 hours, the neurons show activation of calpain and cleavage of Bid. Which
outcome is most likely?
A) The neurons undergo apoptosis via the extrinsic pathway
B) The neurons undergo necrosis due to calpain-mediated cytoskeletal degradation
C) The neurons undergo apoptosis via the intrinsic pathway
D) The neurons survive due to activation of survival pathways
Answer: C
Rationale: Calpain activation and Bid cleavage are key events in the intrinsic (mitochondrial) apoptotic pathway.
Calpain cleaves Bid to truncated Bid (tBid), which translocates to mitochondria to promote cytochrome c release.
The extrinsic pathway (A) involves death receptors and caspase-8, not calpain. Necrosis (B) would involve more
severe calcium overload and ATP depletion. Survival (D) would require activation of anti-apoptotic pathways, not
calpain/Bid.
8 In a patient with chronic anemia, bone marrow biopsy shows increased erythroid precursors with mild nuclear
atypia but no increase in blasts. Which term best describes this finding?
A) Metaplasia
B) Dysplasia
C) Hyperplasia
D) Anaplasia
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic anemia stimulates erythropoietin production, leading to hyperplasia of erythroid precursors
(increased cell number). The mild nuclear atypia is a reactive change, not true dysplasia (B), which implies
neoplastic transformation. Metaplasia (A) is a change in cell type. Anaplasia (D) is loss of differentiation seen in
high-grade cancers.
9 A scientist is studying the effect of a drug that inhibits the proteasome. After treating cells with this drug, she
observes accumulation of ubiquitinated proteins and activation of the unfolded protein response (UPR). Which
cellular adaptation is most likely to occur as a result?
A) Increased autophagy to clear protein aggregates
B) Atrophy due to decreased protein synthesis
C) Hypertrophy due to increased ER function
D) Apoptosis due to ER stress
Answer: A
Rationale: Proteasome inhibition leads to accumulation of misfolded proteins, triggering the UPR and autophagy as
adaptive responses to eliminate aggregates. Autophagy is a survival mechanism to clear damaged proteins. Atrophy
(B) would involve decreased cell size, not increased autophagy. Hypertrophy (C) might involve ER expansion but
is not the primary adaptation here; UPR can lead to apoptosis if severe, but the question asks for adaptation, and
autophagy is the initial adaptive response.
10 A researcher uses a fluorescent dye that binds to DNA and measures cell cycle distribution in a population of
hepatocytes after partial hepatectomy. She finds that the percentage of cells in S phase increases from 2% to
25% within 48 hours. Which cellular adaptation is occurring?
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
, C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Partial hepatectomy triggers regeneration of the liver through hyperplasia (increase in cell number). The
increase in S phase cells indicates active DNA synthesis and cell division. Hypertrophy (A) would involve
increased cell size, not increased S phase. Metaplasia (C) and dysplasia (D) involve changes in cell type or
morphology, not proliferation.
11 A cell exposed to a sublethal stressor shows an increase in the number of mitochondria, proliferation of smooth
endoplasmic reticulum, and hypertrophy of the Golgi apparatus. Which adaptive response is most consistent
with these morphological changes?
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Hypertrophy
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertrophy involves an increase in cell size due to increased synthesis of structural components and
organelles. The described proliferation of organelles (mitochondria, SER, Golgi) supports increased functional
capacity, characteristic of hypertrophy. Hyperplasia refers to increased cell number, metaplasia to a change in cell
type, and atrophy to a decrease in cell size.
12 A researcher inhibits the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway in cultured hepatocytes exposed to a toxin that induces
endoplasmic reticulum stress. Compared to control cells, the treated cells are more likely to exhibit:
A) Increased accumulation of misfolded proteins and reduced apoptosis
B) Enhanced autophagy and increased cell survival
C) Decreased unfolded protein response (UPR) signaling and increased necrosis
D) Accelerated degradation of damaged organelles and reduced inflammation
Answer: A
Rationale: The ubiquitin-proteasome pathway degrades misfolded proteins; its inhibition leads to accumulation of
misfolded proteins. ER stress triggers UPR, which can induce apoptosis if unresolved. Inhibiting proteasomes
would increase misfolded proteins but may reduce apoptosis due to impaired degradation of pro-apoptotic factors,
though overall cell fate is complex. Option A is most consistent: accumulation of misfolded proteins occurs, and
apoptosis may be reduced because proteasomal degradation of pro-apoptotic proteins is blocked.
13 In a model of pressure overload-induced cardiac hypertrophy, which molecular signaling event is least likely to
contribute to the transition from compensatory hypertrophy to heart failure?
A) Sustained activation of calcineurin-NFAT pathway
B) Increased expression of fetal gene program (e.g., ANP, BNP)
C) Upregulation of antioxidant enzymes such as superoxide dismutase
D) Mitochondrial dysfunction and increased reactive oxygen species production
Answer: C
Rationale: Compensatory hypertrophy initially involves adaptive signaling; transition to failure involves
maladaptive changes. Upregulation of antioxidant enzymes (e.g., SOD) is protective and would delay failure, not
promote it. Sustained calcineurin activation, fetal gene re-expression, and mitochondrial ROS production are all
associated with maladaptive remodeling and progression to heart failure.