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Nurs 316 Unit 6 Questions And Verified Answers

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NURS 316 UNIT 6 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS

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A hospital client with a history of hypertension has been administered a one-time
dose of captopril because the client's blood pressure exceeds desired levels. After
administering the medication, what is the nurse's best action?
a) Ensure that the client remains in bed with side rails raised.
b) Reassess the client's blood pressure in 15 minutes.
c) Measure the client's blood pressure at 60, 90, and 120 minutes.
d) Monitor the client's oxygen saturation levels and respiratory rate for the next hour.


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b) Reassess the client's blood pressure in 15 minutes.
The onset of captopril is 15 minutes with a peak between 30 and 90
minutes. There may be a falls risk due to decreased blood pressure, but this
would not normally require bed rest and side rails. There is no reason to
believe the client's respiratory status is at risk. The nurse should not wait 1
hour before reassessing blood pressure.

,What factors would the nurse anticipate assessing in the client diagnosed with
metabolic syndrome? Select all that apply.
a) Hypertension
b) High triglycerides
c) Anemia
d) Abdominal fat
e) High HDL


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a) Hypertension
b) High triglycerides
d) Abdominal fat
Abdominal obesity is a factor in metabolic syndrome. High triglycerides are
a component of metabolic syndrome. Hypertension is a factor found in
metabolic syndrome. HDLs are usually low in metabolic syndrome. Anemia
does not contribute to metabolic syndrome.




The client tells the nurse, "Ever since they told me I had angina, I have had terrible
gas. Is my heart problem causing it?" The client is receiving nitroglycerin transdermal
and metoprolol. What is the nurse's best response?
a) "No, it isn't a heart problem. It is most likely caused by metoprolol."
b) "Your change in diet as a result of heart disease is causing the gas you describe."
c) "Yes, reduced cardiac output means less blood flow to the bowel, causing gas."
d) "No, it isn't a heart problem. It is most likely the nitroglycerin causing the
flatulence."


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a) "No, it isn't a heart problem. It is most likely caused by metoprolol."
Gastric adverse effects of metoprolol include gastric pain, flatulence,
diarrhea, and vomiting. Flatulence is not caused by nitroglycerin or
coronary artery disease.

,A client with a diagnosis of secondary hypertension has begun to experience signs
and symptoms that are consistent with decreased cardiac output. Which of the
following determinants of cardiac output is hypertension most likely to affect
directly?
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Contractility
D. Heart rate


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B. Afterload (17) --- The afterload is the pressure or tension work of the
heart. It is the pressure that the heart must generate to move blood into the
aorta. The systemic arterial blood pressure is the main source of afterload
work on the left heart. As blood pressure increases, the left ventricle must
overcome greater resistance in order to pump blood into the circulatory
system. Preload represents the volume work of the heart. It is the amount
of blood that the heart must pump with each beat and represents the
volume of blood stretching the ventricular muscle fibres at the end of
diastole. Heart rate and cardiac contractility are strictly cardiac factors,
meaning they originate in the heart, although they are controlled by various
neural and humoral mechanisms.




What class of antiarrhythmic will the nurse administer to impact phase 0 of the action
potential?
a) Class II
b) Class IV
c) Class III
d) Class I


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, d) Class I
The class I antiarrhythmics stabilize the cell membrane by binding to
sodium channels, depressing phase 0 of the action potential and changing
the duration of the action potential. The class II antiarrhythmics
competitively block beta-receptor sites in the heart and kidneys. The result
is a decrease in heart rate, cardiac excitability, and cardiac output; a
slowing of conduction through the AV node; and a decrease in the release
of renin. The class III antiarrhythmics block potassium channels and slow
the outward movement of potassium during phase 3 of the action
potential, prolonging it. The class IV antiarrhythmics block the movement of
calcium ions across the cell membrane, depressing the generation of action
potentials and delaying phases 1 and 2 of repolarization, which slows
automaticity and conduction.




The nurse would anticipate that which of the following clients would be considered a
good candidate for coronary-artery bypass grafting (CAGB)?
A. A 56 y/o with a history of MI experiencing new-onset chest pain and ST elevation.
B. A 24 y/o auto accident client diagnosed with pericardial effusion and cardiac
tamponade
C. A 87 y/o client admitted with uncontrolled dilated cardiomyopathy.
D. A 78 y/o client admitted with increasing fatigue related to aortic stenosis.


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A. A 56 y/o with a history of MI experiencing new-onset chest pain and ST
elevation. (19)




What common action do both cardiac glycosides and phosphodiesterase inhibitors
have in common related to therapeutic action?
A) Blocking the enzyme phosphodiesterase
B) Increasing cellular calcium
C) Developing ventricular arrhythmias
D) Metabolizing in the liver and excreted in the urine

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