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Infectious Diseases Nursing Care Practice Examination Merged With Correct Verified And Well Analyzed Answers | Already Graded A+ | 2026 Latest Update!!!

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Infectious Diseases Nursing Care Practice Examination Merged With Correct Verified And Well Analyzed Answers | Already Graded A+ | 2026 Latest Update!!! Infectious Diseases Nursing Care Practice Examination Merged With Correct Verified And Well Analyzed Answers | Already Graded A+ | 2026 Latest Update!!! Infectious Diseases Nursing Care Practice Examination Merged With Correct Verified And Well Analyzed Answers | Already Graded A+ | 2026 Latest Update!!!

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Infectious Diseases Nursing Care Practice
Examination Merged With Correct
Verified And Well Analyzed Answers |
Already Graded A+ | 2026 Latest
Update!!!


1. A nurse is caring for a client with pulmonary tuberculosis.
Which intervention is the highest priority?

A. Encourage increased fluid intake B. Place the client in airborne
isolation C. Provide a high-calorie diet D. Limit the client’s activity
level

Answer: B. Place the client in airborne isolation

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne droplets.
Airborne isolation precautions are the priority intervention to prevent
transmission to healthcare workers, visitors, and other clients. While
nutrition, hydration, and rest are important, infection control
measures take precedence.

2. A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks the
nurse why opportunistic infections occur. Which response by
the nurse is most accurate?

A. “HIV weakens the immune system, making it difficult to fight
infections.” B. “Opportunistic infections occur because antibiotics
are ineffective.” C. “The body produces too many white blood cells.”
D. “HIV causes excessive inflammation in body tissues.”

,Answer: A. “HIV weakens the immune system, making it difficult to
fight infections.”

Rationale: HIV attacks CD4 T-helper cells, leading to immune
suppression. As the immune system becomes weakened, the body
becomes more susceptible to opportunistic infections that a healthy
immune system could normally control.

3. Which assessment finding is most consistent with bacterial
meningitis?

A. Bradycardia and hypothermia B. Neck stiffness and photophobia
C. Weight gain and edema D. Productive cough and wheezing

Answer: B. Neck stiffness and photophobia

Rationale: Classic manifestations of bacterial meningitis include
nuchal rigidity, photophobia, fever, headache, and altered mental
status. These symptoms occur due to inflammation of the meninges
surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about prevention of hepatitis B
transmission. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?

A. “I should avoid sharing razors or toothbrushes.” B. “I can stop
taking precautions once I feel better.” C. “Hepatitis B spreads
through casual contact.” D. “I do not need vaccination if I was
exposed before.”

Answer: A. “I should avoid sharing razors or toothbrushes.”

Rationale: Hepatitis B is transmitted through blood and body fluids.
Sharing personal items such as razors or toothbrushes can spread
infection. Vaccination and ongoing precautions remain important
even after exposure.

, 5. A client with sepsis develops hypotension and tachycardia.
Which action should the nurse implement first?

A. Administer intravenous fluids B. Provide oral fluids C. Position
the client flat without support D. Restrict fluid intake

Answer: A. Administer intravenous fluids

Rationale: Sepsis can lead to septic shock characterized by
vasodilation, hypotension, and inadequate tissue perfusion. Rapid
administration of intravenous fluids helps restore circulating volume
and improve perfusion.

6. Which laboratory value is most concerning in a client receiving
treatment for infection?

A. White blood cell count of 3,000/mm³ B. Hemoglobin of 14 g/dL C.
Platelet count of 250,000/mm³ D. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L

Answer: A. White blood cell count of 3,000/mm³

Rationale: A low white blood cell count indicates possible
immunosuppression or bone marrow suppression, increasing the
client’s risk for infection. The other laboratory values are within
normal limits.

7. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides
difficile infection. Which precaution is appropriate?

A. Airborne precautions B. Contact precautions C. Droplet
precautions D. Protective isolation

Answer: B. Contact precautions

Rationale: Clostridioides difficile is transmitted through spores that
spread by contact. Gloves, gowns, and handwashing with soap and
water are essential to prevent transmission.

, 8. A client with influenza asks why antiviral medications must be
started early. Which response is best?

A. “Antivirals work best before the virus replicates extensively.” B.
“Antivirals completely eliminate all viruses immediately.” C.
“Antivirals replace the need for vaccination.” D. “Antivirals prevent
all complications permanently.”

Answer: A. “Antivirals work best before the virus replicates
extensively.”

Rationale: Antiviral medications are most effective when initiated
within the first 24–48 hours of symptom onset because they reduce
viral replication and disease severity.

9. Which client is at highest risk for developing healthcare-
associated infections?

A. A healthy adolescent with a sprained ankle B. An older adult
with an indwelling urinary catheter C. A middle-aged adult with
seasonal allergies D. A pregnant client attending prenatal visits

Answer: B. An older adult with an indwelling urinary catheter

Rationale: Indwelling catheters increase the risk of urinary tract
infections by providing a direct pathway for microorganisms. Older
adults also have reduced immune function, increasing susceptibility.

10. A nurse is assessing a client with Lyme disease. Which
finding is commonly associated with this condition?

A. Bull’s-eye skin rash B. Vesicular lesions C. Jaundice D. Cyanosis

Answer: A. Bull’s-eye skin rash

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