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Exam (elaborations)

CNA Written Exam Prometric Practice Test, 2026/2027 – Nurse Aide Competency Assessment

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This document covers the CNA Written Exam Prometric Practice Test for the 2026/2027 certification cycle. It includes 70 multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply questions designed to assess foundational nurse aide knowledge and competency in long-term care and patient support settings. The material supports exam preparation by reinforcing infection control, activities of daily living, vital signs, restorative care, nutrition, ambulation, therapeutic communication, resident rights, dementia care, emergency procedures, abuse recognition, documentation standards, and legal and ethical responsibilities within CNA scope of practice guidelines.

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CNA WRITTEN EXAM
Prometric Practice Test — Nurse Aide Competency Assessment

2026/2027 — 70 Questions — Graded A+



Assessment Type: Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQ) — Single Best Answer / SATA

Total Questions: 70 (per commonly cited Prometric CNA Written Examination specifications)

Testing Time: 120 minutes (computer-based, proctored format at Prometric testing centers)

Passing Score: 70–75% required (49–53/70 correct) for CNA certification eligibility

Content Distribution: Basic Nursing Skills (25%), Personal Care (20%), Restorative Services (15%),
Psychosocial Care (15%), Safety/Emergency (15%), Legal/Ethical (10%)

Core Domains: Vital Signs, Infection Control, ADLs, Skin Care, Nutrition, ROM, Ambulation,
Therapeutic Communication, Resident Rights, Fall Prevention, Fire Safety, Dementia Care,
Documentation, Scope of Practice, Abuse Recognition

Source: NNAAP Written Examination Test Plan; Prometric CNA Candidate Handbook; OBRA ’87
Federal Regulations; Hartman Publishing Nurse Aide Training Program




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,Domain 1: Basic Nursing Skills (Vital Signs, Infection Control, Body Mechanics, Specimen
Collection)

1. When measuring a resident's oral temperature using a digital thermometer, the CNA
should place the probe:

A. Under the tongue in the sublingual pocket at the back of the mouth

B. On top of the tongue with the mouth open

C. Between the cheek and gum on the side of the mouth

D. Under the tongue at the front of the mouth

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The sublingual pocket, located at the base of the tongue near the frenulum, provides the
most accurate oral temperature reading because it is richly supplied with blood vessels and is closest to
the body's core temperature. Placing the probe at the front of the mouth or on top of the tongue (Options
B and D) exposes it to cooler air and saliva, producing a falsely low reading. The buccal pouch between
cheek and gum (Option C) also yields less accurate results than the sublingual pocket. The CNA must
instruct the resident to keep the mouth closed and breathe through the nose during measurement to
prevent ambient air from cooling the probe.

2. The normal range for an adult respiratory rate at rest is:

A. 8–12 breaths per minute

B. 12–20 breaths per minute

C. 20–30 breaths per minute

D. 30–40 breaths per minute

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12
(bradypnea) may indicate central nervous system depression, medication effects, or sleep; rates above
20 (tachypnea) may indicate fever, anxiety, pain, respiratory illness, or metabolic acidosis. The CNA
must count respirations for a full 60 seconds for accuracy, preferably without the resident's awareness
(since conscious breathing alters the rate), and report any deviation from the normal range to the nurse
immediately. Rates of 8–12 (Option A) are below normal for most adults, while 20–30 (Option C) and
30–40 (Option D) indicate tachypnea and require prompt assessment.

3. When taking a resident's blood pressure, the CNA should ensure the cuff is:

A. Placed loosely over clothing with the bladder centered over the brachial artery

B. Applied snugly on bare skin with the bladder centered over the brachial artery at heart level

C. Positioned on the forearm regardless of cuff size

D. Inflated to 300 mmHg for all residents to ensure an accurate reading

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Accurate blood pressure measurement requires the cuff bladder to be centered directly over
the brachial artery, applied snugly on bare skin (clothing interferes with sound transmission and
compression), and positioned at heart level (the level of the right atrium). A cuff that is too loose, placed
over clothing (Option A), or positioned incorrectly (Option C) produces inaccurate readings. The
forearm is used only when the upper arm is inaccessible, with proper documentation. Inflating to 300


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, mmHg (Option D) is excessive and causes unnecessary discomfort; the cuff should be inflated
approximately 30 mmHg above the point at which the radial pulse disappears.

4. A resident's radial pulse is irregular. The CNA should:

A. Count the pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4

B. Count the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2

C. Count the pulse for a full 60 seconds, noting any irregularities

D. Document the pulse as normal and recheck at the next scheduled time

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a pulse is irregular, the CNA must count for a full 60 seconds (one full minute) to
capture the variation in rhythm and obtain an accurate rate. Short-count methods (15 or 30 seconds
multiplied) assume a regular rhythm and will produce inaccurate results when beats are irregular or
skipped. The CNA should also note and document the nature of the irregularity (e.g., skipped beats,
irregular intervals) and report findings to the nurse. Option D fails to address the irregularity, which
may indicate a significant cardiac condition requiring prompt evaluation.

5. Standard Precautions require hand hygiene:

A. Only after removing gloves

B. Before and after every resident contact, after contact with body fluids, and after removing gloves

C. Only at the beginning and end of each shift

D. Only when hands are visibly soiled

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Standard Precautions mandate hand hygiene before and after every resident contact, after
contact with blood or body fluids, after removing gloves (gloves are not a substitute for hand hygiene—
microscopic tears can allow contamination), and before performing aseptic procedures. Hand hygiene
may be performed with alcohol-based hand rub (when hands are not visibly soiled) or soap and water
(when hands are visibly soiled or after caring for a resident with C. difficile). Options A, C, and D all fail
to meet the comprehensive hand hygiene requirements that are the single most effective measure for
preventing healthcare-associated infections.

6. When donning personal protective equipment (PPE) for a procedure involving potential
splash, the correct order is:

A. Mask, gown, gloves

B. Gown, mask, gloves

C. Gloves, gown, mask

D. Gown, gloves, mask

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct donning sequence is: gown first (to protect clothing and skin), then mask or
face shield (to protect mucous membranes from splash), and gloves last (gloves go over the gown cuffs
to create a sealed barrier). This sequence ensures each item is donned in a logical order that maximizes
protection and prevents contamination of clean items. Doffing follows the reverse order: gloves first
(most contaminated), then gown, then mask/face shield, with hand hygiene performed immediately
after all PPE is removed. Option A dons the mask before the gown, risking contamination of the mask


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