Actual ATI PN Med-Surg
Proctored Exam 2026 NGN 100
Q&A Verified 100%
Cardiovascular Disorders (Q1-10)
1. A client is 12 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the right
femoral artery. The right foot is pale, cool to the touch, and the client
reports numbness. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: Assess the right femoral pulse.
Rationale: Pale, cool, and numb extremity post-catheterization
suggests arterial occlusion or thrombus formation. Assessing the
femoral pulse checks for perfusion; it is the priority before any other
intervention.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops low back pain and
tachycardia. Which type of transfusion reaction should the nurse
suspect?
Correct Answer: Acute hemolytic reaction.
Rationale: Low back pain (from kidney stress), tachycardia,
hypotension, and hemoglobinuria are hallmark signs of RBC
destruction in an acute hemolytic reaction.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg
IV push. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
,closely?
Correct Answer: Potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium
excretion. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, especially
in clients also taking digoxin.
4. A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin
(Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates therapeutic
effectiveness?
Correct Answer: INR of 2.5.
Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the target INR is usually 2.0–3.0. An
INR of 2.5 falls within the therapeutic range and indicates effective
anticoagulation.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure reports dyspnea and cough
with frothy sputum. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: Administer oxygen.
Rationale: Frothy sputum indicates pulmonary congestion. Oxygen
is the priority to improve hypoxia caused by pulmonary edema.
6. A client with chest pain is being evaluated for a suspected
myocardial infarction. Which diagnostic test should the nurse
prepare for first?
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG).
Rationale: The ECG is rapid, non-invasive, and confirms ischemia or
infarction immediately. It should be done as soon as possible after a
client presents with chest pain.
7. Which ECG change is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: Peaked T waves.
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are an early ECG finding in
, hyperkalemia. As potassium rises further, the QRS widens, and
arrhythmias occur.
8. A client with symptomatic bradycardia should receive which
medication?
Correct Answer: Atropine.
Rationale: Atropine is the first-line medication for symptomatic
bradycardia. If ineffective, transcutaneous pacing may be required.
9. A client with atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is
receiving synchronized cardioversion. Which medication is often
used pre-procedure?
Correct Answer: Amiodarone (or adenosine/verapamil).
Rationale: Antiarrhythmics such as amiodarone, adenosine, or
verapamil may be given before synchronized cardioversion to help
convert atrial fibrillation or to slow the ventricular rate.
10. A client with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse should receive
which form of electrical therapy?
Correct Answer: Synchronized cardioversion.
Rationale: For unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse,
synchronized cardioversion is indicated. Defibrillation is used for
pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Respiratory Disorders (Q11-20)
11. A client with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
Which oxygen delivery device and flow rate should the nurse
anticipate?
Correct Answer: Nasal cannula at 1–2 L/min.
Proctored Exam 2026 NGN 100
Q&A Verified 100%
Cardiovascular Disorders (Q1-10)
1. A client is 12 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the right
femoral artery. The right foot is pale, cool to the touch, and the client
reports numbness. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: Assess the right femoral pulse.
Rationale: Pale, cool, and numb extremity post-catheterization
suggests arterial occlusion or thrombus formation. Assessing the
femoral pulse checks for perfusion; it is the priority before any other
intervention.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops low back pain and
tachycardia. Which type of transfusion reaction should the nurse
suspect?
Correct Answer: Acute hemolytic reaction.
Rationale: Low back pain (from kidney stress), tachycardia,
hypotension, and hemoglobinuria are hallmark signs of RBC
destruction in an acute hemolytic reaction.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg
IV push. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
,closely?
Correct Answer: Potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium
excretion. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, especially
in clients also taking digoxin.
4. A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin
(Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates therapeutic
effectiveness?
Correct Answer: INR of 2.5.
Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the target INR is usually 2.0–3.0. An
INR of 2.5 falls within the therapeutic range and indicates effective
anticoagulation.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure reports dyspnea and cough
with frothy sputum. What is the priority action?
Correct Answer: Administer oxygen.
Rationale: Frothy sputum indicates pulmonary congestion. Oxygen
is the priority to improve hypoxia caused by pulmonary edema.
6. A client with chest pain is being evaluated for a suspected
myocardial infarction. Which diagnostic test should the nurse
prepare for first?
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG).
Rationale: The ECG is rapid, non-invasive, and confirms ischemia or
infarction immediately. It should be done as soon as possible after a
client presents with chest pain.
7. Which ECG change is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: Peaked T waves.
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are an early ECG finding in
, hyperkalemia. As potassium rises further, the QRS widens, and
arrhythmias occur.
8. A client with symptomatic bradycardia should receive which
medication?
Correct Answer: Atropine.
Rationale: Atropine is the first-line medication for symptomatic
bradycardia. If ineffective, transcutaneous pacing may be required.
9. A client with atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is
receiving synchronized cardioversion. Which medication is often
used pre-procedure?
Correct Answer: Amiodarone (or adenosine/verapamil).
Rationale: Antiarrhythmics such as amiodarone, adenosine, or
verapamil may be given before synchronized cardioversion to help
convert atrial fibrillation or to slow the ventricular rate.
10. A client with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse should receive
which form of electrical therapy?
Correct Answer: Synchronized cardioversion.
Rationale: For unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse,
synchronized cardioversion is indicated. Defibrillation is used for
pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Respiratory Disorders (Q11-20)
11. A client with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
Which oxygen delivery device and flow rate should the nurse
anticipate?
Correct Answer: Nasal cannula at 1–2 L/min.
