MATERNAL/CHILD CJE (CERTIFIED JOINT
EXAMINATION) EXAM Actual Exam Complete
Questions and Answers Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care & Pregnancy Complications | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care & Labor Management | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Postpartum Care & Newborn Transition | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Pediatric Growth, Development & Common Illnesses | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | High-Risk Neonatal & Child Health Emergencies | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & PREGNANCY COMPLICATIONS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 28-year-old primigravid patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with a severe
headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96
mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Deep tendon reflexes are brisk with clonus.
Which condition is most likely, and what is the priority intervention?
A. Chronic hypertension; initiate oral antihypertensive therapy
B. Mild preeclampsia; schedule outpatient follow-up in one week
C. Severe preeclampsia; initiate magnesium sulfate and plan for delivery ✓ CORRECT
D. Gestational diabetes; start insulin therapy
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: The triad of hypertension, proteinuria, and end-organ symptoms including
headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia with clonus defines severe
preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate prevents eclampsia, and delivery is definitive
treatment. Chronic hypertension does not present acutely at 32 weeks, and gestational
diabetes does not cause these neurological findings.
Question 2 of 50
A 34-year-old patient at 18 weeks gestation has a body mass index of 32 kg/m² and a
family history of type 2 diabetes. Her 1-hour glucose challenge test result is 155 mg/dL.
Which next step in management is most appropriate?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin therapy
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test ✓ CORRECT
C. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 4 weeks
D. Begin dietary modification and home glucose monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test value between 140 and 190 mg/dL requires a
confirmatory 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test before diagnosing gestational diabetes.
Starting insulin or intensive monitoring without confirmation is premature. Repeating
the screening test delays appropriate diagnosis and management.
Question 3 of 50
A 22-year-old patient at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and mild
cramping. Ultrasound shows a gestational sac with a yolk sac but no fetal pole. The
patient is Rh-negative. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin and schedule repeat ultrasound in 1 week ✓
CORRECT
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin and proceed with dilation and curettage
C. Do not administer Rho(D) immune globulin because the pregnancy is viable
, D. Perform emergency laparoscopy to rule out ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A threatened abortion with a gestational sac and yolk sac at 10 weeks may
represent a viable pregnancy too early to visualize a fetal pole, or it may be a missed
abortion. Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for any bleeding in an Rh-negative patient
to prevent alloimmunization. Dilation and curettage is premature without confirmation
of nonviability.
Question 4 of 50
A 30-year-old patient at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement over the
past 24 hours. She has no contractions, bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal heart rate is
140 beats per minute with moderate variability and no decelerations on nonstress test.
Which management is most appropriate?
A. Immediate delivery by cesarean section
B. Reassurance and routine prenatal care follow-up
C. Perform a biophysical profile to assess fetal well-being ✓ CORRECT
D. Administer betamethasone for fetal lung maturity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement warrants further evaluation beyond a reactive
nonstress test. A biophysical profile combines NST with ultrasound assessment of
breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid to comprehensively evaluate fetal status.
Immediate delivery is not indicated with a reactive NST, and steroids are unnecessary
without a plan for preterm delivery.
Question 5 of 50
EXAMINATION) EXAM Actual Exam Complete
Questions and Answers Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care & Pregnancy Complications | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care & Labor Management | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Postpartum Care & Newborn Transition | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Pediatric Growth, Development & Common Illnesses | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | High-Risk Neonatal & Child Health Emergencies | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & PREGNANCY COMPLICATIONS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 28-year-old primigravid patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with a severe
headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 158/96
mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 2+ protein. Deep tendon reflexes are brisk with clonus.
Which condition is most likely, and what is the priority intervention?
A. Chronic hypertension; initiate oral antihypertensive therapy
B. Mild preeclampsia; schedule outpatient follow-up in one week
C. Severe preeclampsia; initiate magnesium sulfate and plan for delivery ✓ CORRECT
D. Gestational diabetes; start insulin therapy
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: The triad of hypertension, proteinuria, and end-organ symptoms including
headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and hyperreflexia with clonus defines severe
preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate prevents eclampsia, and delivery is definitive
treatment. Chronic hypertension does not present acutely at 32 weeks, and gestational
diabetes does not cause these neurological findings.
Question 2 of 50
A 34-year-old patient at 18 weeks gestation has a body mass index of 32 kg/m² and a
family history of type 2 diabetes. Her 1-hour glucose challenge test result is 155 mg/dL.
Which next step in management is most appropriate?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin therapy
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test ✓ CORRECT
C. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 4 weeks
D. Begin dietary modification and home glucose monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test value between 140 and 190 mg/dL requires a
confirmatory 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test before diagnosing gestational diabetes.
Starting insulin or intensive monitoring without confirmation is premature. Repeating
the screening test delays appropriate diagnosis and management.
Question 3 of 50
A 22-year-old patient at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and mild
cramping. Ultrasound shows a gestational sac with a yolk sac but no fetal pole. The
patient is Rh-negative. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin and schedule repeat ultrasound in 1 week ✓
CORRECT
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin and proceed with dilation and curettage
C. Do not administer Rho(D) immune globulin because the pregnancy is viable
, D. Perform emergency laparoscopy to rule out ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A threatened abortion with a gestational sac and yolk sac at 10 weeks may
represent a viable pregnancy too early to visualize a fetal pole, or it may be a missed
abortion. Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for any bleeding in an Rh-negative patient
to prevent alloimmunization. Dilation and curettage is premature without confirmation
of nonviability.
Question 4 of 50
A 30-year-old patient at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement over the
past 24 hours. She has no contractions, bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal heart rate is
140 beats per minute with moderate variability and no decelerations on nonstress test.
Which management is most appropriate?
A. Immediate delivery by cesarean section
B. Reassurance and routine prenatal care follow-up
C. Perform a biophysical profile to assess fetal well-being ✓ CORRECT
D. Administer betamethasone for fetal lung maturity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement warrants further evaluation beyond a reactive
nonstress test. A biophysical profile combines NST with ultrasound assessment of
breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid to comprehensively evaluate fetal status.
Immediate delivery is not indicated with a reactive NST, and steroids are unnecessary
without a plan for preterm delivery.
Question 5 of 50
