STNA Week 13 Quiz - Nursing Assistant Program 2026/2027 UPDATE
1. Which of the following is the most accurate description of Alzheimer’s
disease?
A. A temporary state of mental confusion following surgery
B. A normal part of the aging process for all seniors
C. A progressive, irreversible brain disorder that destroys memory
D. A condition caused primarily by a lack of physical exercise
Answer: C
Rationale: Alzheimer’s is a specific brain disease that is progressive and irreversible,
unlike delirium which is temporary.
2. The primary goal of hospice care is to:
A. Provide life-prolonging treatments and surgeries
B. Provide comfort and pain management at the end of life
C. Diagnose new chronic illnesses in elderly patients
D. Rehabilitate the resident so they can return home
Answer: B
Rationale: Hospice focuses on palliative care, which emphasizes comfort and quality of life
rather than curing the disease.
3. When performing post-mortem care, the STNA should:
A. Place the body in a supine position with the head slightly elevated
B. Remove all tubes and IV lines immediately without instructions
C. Leave the eyes open to wait for the family’s arrival
D. Perform the care in a loud, brisk manner to finish quickly
Answer: A
,Rationale: The body should be placed in a natural supine position with the head elevated
to prevent discoloration of the face.
4. Which communication technique involves acknowledging the resident’s
feelings even if they are confused?
A. Reality orientation
B. Confrontational therapy
C. Standardized testing
D. Validation therapy
Answer: D
Rationale: Validation therapy focuses on the emotional truth of what a resident is saying
rather than correcting their logic or reality.
5. What is the main objective of restorative nursing?
A. To complete all ADLs for the resident as quickly as possible
B. To replace the need for physical therapists in the facility
C. To prepare the resident for immediate discharge to a hospital
D. To help the resident regain and maintain the highest level of function
Answer: D
Rationale: Restorative care aims to promote independence and prevent further decline in
physical or mental function.
6. If a resident complains about the quality of food, which person is officially
designated to investigate?
A. The Ombudsman
B. The Facility Maintenance Director
C. The local Police Department
D. The Pharmacy Consultant
Answer: A
, Rationale: The Ombudsman is a legal advocate for residents who investigates complaints
and helps resolve conflicts.
7. The normal range for an adult’s resting pulse rate is:
A. 40 to 60 beats per minute
B. 60 to 100 beats per minute
C. 100 to 140 beats per minute
D. 80 to 120 beats per minute
Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy adult resting heart rate typically falls between 60 and 100 beats per
minute.
8. When collecting a ‘clean-catch’ urine specimen, the STNA must:
A. Collect the very first drop of urine expelled
B. Clean the perineal area and catch the sample mid-stream
C. Use a non-sterile container from the resident’s bathroom
D. Ensure the resident has not had water for 12 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Clean-catch specimens require cleaning the area and catching the ‘middle’ of
the stream to avoid contamination.
9. In the chain of infection, a ‘portal of entry’ refers to:
A. The place where the germ lives, such as the lungs
B. The method by which the germ travels, such as coughing
C. The person who is at risk of getting sick
D. The way a pathogen enters the body, such as a cut in the skin
Answer: D
Rationale: The portal of entry is the opening (respiratory tract, mucous membranes, or
broken skin) where the pathogen enters.
1. Which of the following is the most accurate description of Alzheimer’s
disease?
A. A temporary state of mental confusion following surgery
B. A normal part of the aging process for all seniors
C. A progressive, irreversible brain disorder that destroys memory
D. A condition caused primarily by a lack of physical exercise
Answer: C
Rationale: Alzheimer’s is a specific brain disease that is progressive and irreversible,
unlike delirium which is temporary.
2. The primary goal of hospice care is to:
A. Provide life-prolonging treatments and surgeries
B. Provide comfort and pain management at the end of life
C. Diagnose new chronic illnesses in elderly patients
D. Rehabilitate the resident so they can return home
Answer: B
Rationale: Hospice focuses on palliative care, which emphasizes comfort and quality of life
rather than curing the disease.
3. When performing post-mortem care, the STNA should:
A. Place the body in a supine position with the head slightly elevated
B. Remove all tubes and IV lines immediately without instructions
C. Leave the eyes open to wait for the family’s arrival
D. Perform the care in a loud, brisk manner to finish quickly
Answer: A
,Rationale: The body should be placed in a natural supine position with the head elevated
to prevent discoloration of the face.
4. Which communication technique involves acknowledging the resident’s
feelings even if they are confused?
A. Reality orientation
B. Confrontational therapy
C. Standardized testing
D. Validation therapy
Answer: D
Rationale: Validation therapy focuses on the emotional truth of what a resident is saying
rather than correcting their logic or reality.
5. What is the main objective of restorative nursing?
A. To complete all ADLs for the resident as quickly as possible
B. To replace the need for physical therapists in the facility
C. To prepare the resident for immediate discharge to a hospital
D. To help the resident regain and maintain the highest level of function
Answer: D
Rationale: Restorative care aims to promote independence and prevent further decline in
physical or mental function.
6. If a resident complains about the quality of food, which person is officially
designated to investigate?
A. The Ombudsman
B. The Facility Maintenance Director
C. The local Police Department
D. The Pharmacy Consultant
Answer: A
, Rationale: The Ombudsman is a legal advocate for residents who investigates complaints
and helps resolve conflicts.
7. The normal range for an adult’s resting pulse rate is:
A. 40 to 60 beats per minute
B. 60 to 100 beats per minute
C. 100 to 140 beats per minute
D. 80 to 120 beats per minute
Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy adult resting heart rate typically falls between 60 and 100 beats per
minute.
8. When collecting a ‘clean-catch’ urine specimen, the STNA must:
A. Collect the very first drop of urine expelled
B. Clean the perineal area and catch the sample mid-stream
C. Use a non-sterile container from the resident’s bathroom
D. Ensure the resident has not had water for 12 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Clean-catch specimens require cleaning the area and catching the ‘middle’ of
the stream to avoid contamination.
9. In the chain of infection, a ‘portal of entry’ refers to:
A. The place where the germ lives, such as the lungs
B. The method by which the germ travels, such as coughing
C. The person who is at risk of getting sick
D. The way a pathogen enters the body, such as a cut in the skin
Answer: D
Rationale: The portal of entry is the opening (respiratory tract, mucous membranes, or
broken skin) where the pathogen enters.