LPN Week 9-20 Comprehensive Nursing Quiz 2026/2027 UPDATE
1. A patient is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which laboratory
value is the most critical for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum Sodium
B. Serum Potassium
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D. White Blood Cell Count
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium.
Hypokalemia is a significant risk, and the nurse must monitor potassium levels to prevent
cardiac arrhythmias.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should
withhold the medication if the patient’s apical pulse is below how many beats
per minute?
A. 50 bpm
B. 70 bpm
C. 60 bpm
D. 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin decreases the heart rate. It is standard practice to withhold the drug if
the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to avoid toxicity and bradycardia.
,3. The physician orders Heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously. The pharmacy
provides a vial labeled 10,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse
administer?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.0 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2.0 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the formula (Order / Available) x Volume: (5,,000) x 1 mL = 0.5
mL.
4. Which type of insulin should the nurse expect to have the quickest onset of
action?
A. Insulin Glargine (Lantus)
B. Insulin Lispro (Humalog)
C. NPH Insulin
D. Regular Insulin (Humulin R)
Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes, whereas
Regular is short-acting (30-60 mins), NPH is intermediate, and Glargine is long-acting.
5. A patient on Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should be instructed to maintain a
consistent intake of which nutrient to avoid interfering with the drug’s
effectiveness?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium
Answer: C
, Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist for Warfarin. Large fluctuations in Vitamin K intake
(found in leafy greens) can change the drug’s effectiveness and the INR level.
6. Which laboratory test is used specifically to monitor the effectiveness of
Heparin therapy?
A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Prothrombin Time (PT)
D. Bleeding Time
Answer: A
Rationale: aPTT is the standard test for Heparin, while PT and INR are used for Warfarin
monitoring.
7. A patient is prescribed Albuterol via metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse
knows this medication is primarily used for:
A. Reducing airway inflammation
B. Preventing bacterial infections
C. Bronchodilation during acute asthma attacks
D. Thinning respiratory secretions
Answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that provides rapid bronchodilation for
acute respiratory distress.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving Prednisone. The nurse should
educate the patient that the medication must be:
A. Stopped immediately if a rash occurs
B. Tapered off slowly
C. Taken on an empty stomach
D. Taken only when symptoms are severe
Answer: B
1. A patient is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which laboratory
value is the most critical for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum Sodium
B. Serum Potassium
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D. White Blood Cell Count
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium.
Hypokalemia is a significant risk, and the nurse must monitor potassium levels to prevent
cardiac arrhythmias.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should
withhold the medication if the patient’s apical pulse is below how many beats
per minute?
A. 50 bpm
B. 70 bpm
C. 60 bpm
D. 80 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin decreases the heart rate. It is standard practice to withhold the drug if
the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to avoid toxicity and bradycardia.
,3. The physician orders Heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously. The pharmacy
provides a vial labeled 10,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse
administer?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.0 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2.0 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the formula (Order / Available) x Volume: (5,,000) x 1 mL = 0.5
mL.
4. Which type of insulin should the nurse expect to have the quickest onset of
action?
A. Insulin Glargine (Lantus)
B. Insulin Lispro (Humalog)
C. NPH Insulin
D. Regular Insulin (Humulin R)
Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes, whereas
Regular is short-acting (30-60 mins), NPH is intermediate, and Glargine is long-acting.
5. A patient on Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should be instructed to maintain a
consistent intake of which nutrient to avoid interfering with the drug’s
effectiveness?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium
Answer: C
, Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist for Warfarin. Large fluctuations in Vitamin K intake
(found in leafy greens) can change the drug’s effectiveness and the INR level.
6. Which laboratory test is used specifically to monitor the effectiveness of
Heparin therapy?
A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Prothrombin Time (PT)
D. Bleeding Time
Answer: A
Rationale: aPTT is the standard test for Heparin, while PT and INR are used for Warfarin
monitoring.
7. A patient is prescribed Albuterol via metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse
knows this medication is primarily used for:
A. Reducing airway inflammation
B. Preventing bacterial infections
C. Bronchodilation during acute asthma attacks
D. Thinning respiratory secretions
Answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that provides rapid bronchodilation for
acute respiratory distress.
8. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving Prednisone. The nurse should
educate the patient that the medication must be:
A. Stopped immediately if a rash occurs
B. Tapered off slowly
C. Taken on an empty stomach
D. Taken only when symptoms are severe
Answer: B
