LPN Midterm Exam: Leadership and IV Therapy 2026/2027 UPDATE
1. A Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) is delegating tasks to an Unlicensed Assistive
Personnel (UAP). Which task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
B. Adjusting the flow rate of an IV infusion
C. Assisting a stable client with ambulation
D. Performing an admission assessment on a new patient
Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation to UAPs should involve tasks that are routine, non-invasive, and for
stable clients. Assessments, evaluations, and IV adjustments are outside the UAP scope of
practice.
2. When using the SBAR communication tool, which information belongs in the
‘Background’ section?
A. The nurse’s recommendation for a change in treatment
B. The client’s medical history and admitting diagnosis
C. The reason the nurse is calling the healthcare provider
D. The client’s current vital signs and mental status
Answer: B
Rationale: Background (B) provides the context, such as the medical history, admitting
diagnosis, and relevant past treatments. Vital signs are usually under Assessment (A).
,3. A nurse identifies that a client’s IV site is cool, pale, and swollen. Which
complication is the client likely experiencing?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration
C. Extravasation
D. Air Embolism
Answer: B
Rationale: Infiltration is characterized by cool, pale skin and edema at the site due to fluid
leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Phlebitis involves warmth and redness.
4. Which of the following is an example of an isotonic IV solution?
A. 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline)
B. 3% Sodium Chloride
C. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (1/2 NS)
D. 10% Dextrose in Water (D10W)
Answer: A
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride is an isotonic solution because its osmolarity is similar to
that of blood plasma.
5. The nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client scheduled for discharge in two hours
B. A client reporting level 4 pain on a 1-10 scale
C. A client who needs a dressing change for a chronic wound
D. A client with a new onset of shortness of breath
Answer: D
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework, a client with
new onset shortness of breath is the highest priority.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of an incident report in a healthcare facility?
A. To punish the staff member who made an error
B. To provide a permanent record in the client’s medical chart
C. To protect the hospital from legal liability
D. To identify system failures and improve quality of care
Answer: D
Rationale: Incident reports are quality improvement tools used to identify risks and
prevent future errors. They are never placed in the client’s medical record.
7. Which ethical principle refers to the nurse’s obligation to do no harm?
A. Autonomy
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
Answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical duty to do no harm. Beneficence is doing good;
Autonomy is the right to self-determination.
8. An LPN is monitoring a client receiving IV fluids and notes a red streak along
the vein and warmth at the site. What is the priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Apply a cold compress immediately
C. Stop the infusion and remove the catheter
D. Flush the line with normal saline
Answer: C
Rationale: Red streaks and warmth indicate phlebitis. The infusion must be stopped and
the IV removed to prevent further irritation or infection.
1. A Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) is delegating tasks to an Unlicensed Assistive
Personnel (UAP). Which task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
B. Adjusting the flow rate of an IV infusion
C. Assisting a stable client with ambulation
D. Performing an admission assessment on a new patient
Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation to UAPs should involve tasks that are routine, non-invasive, and for
stable clients. Assessments, evaluations, and IV adjustments are outside the UAP scope of
practice.
2. When using the SBAR communication tool, which information belongs in the
‘Background’ section?
A. The nurse’s recommendation for a change in treatment
B. The client’s medical history and admitting diagnosis
C. The reason the nurse is calling the healthcare provider
D. The client’s current vital signs and mental status
Answer: B
Rationale: Background (B) provides the context, such as the medical history, admitting
diagnosis, and relevant past treatments. Vital signs are usually under Assessment (A).
,3. A nurse identifies that a client’s IV site is cool, pale, and swollen. Which
complication is the client likely experiencing?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration
C. Extravasation
D. Air Embolism
Answer: B
Rationale: Infiltration is characterized by cool, pale skin and edema at the site due to fluid
leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Phlebitis involves warmth and redness.
4. Which of the following is an example of an isotonic IV solution?
A. 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline)
B. 3% Sodium Chloride
C. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (1/2 NS)
D. 10% Dextrose in Water (D10W)
Answer: A
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride is an isotonic solution because its osmolarity is similar to
that of blood plasma.
5. The nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client scheduled for discharge in two hours
B. A client reporting level 4 pain on a 1-10 scale
C. A client who needs a dressing change for a chronic wound
D. A client with a new onset of shortness of breath
Answer: D
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework, a client with
new onset shortness of breath is the highest priority.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of an incident report in a healthcare facility?
A. To punish the staff member who made an error
B. To provide a permanent record in the client’s medical chart
C. To protect the hospital from legal liability
D. To identify system failures and improve quality of care
Answer: D
Rationale: Incident reports are quality improvement tools used to identify risks and
prevent future errors. They are never placed in the client’s medical record.
7. Which ethical principle refers to the nurse’s obligation to do no harm?
A. Autonomy
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
Answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical duty to do no harm. Beneficence is doing good;
Autonomy is the right to self-determination.
8. An LPN is monitoring a client receiving IV fluids and notes a red streak along
the vein and warmth at the site. What is the priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Apply a cold compress immediately
C. Stop the infusion and remove the catheter
D. Flush the line with normal saline
Answer: C
Rationale: Red streaks and warmth indicate phlebitis. The infusion must be stopped and
the IV removed to prevent further irritation or infection.
