AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK|
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ ACUTE CARE NURSE
PRACTITIONER EXAM PREP (MOST RECENT!!)
A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary
tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has
a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The
appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:
A. cephalexin (Keflex).
B. ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
C. doxycycline (Vibramycin).
D. tetracycline (Sumycin). - Correct Answer - ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Cephalosporin (ceph) are "cousins" with penicillin (cross-allergy).
Tetracyclines can cause severe side effects and are not recommended for
elderly.
An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for
an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum
albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and
evaluates the patient's response by:
A. assessing the total serum protein level.
B. calculating the body fat percentage.
C. obtaining a complete blood count.
pg. 1
,D. obtaining a serum prealbumin level. - Correct Answer - obtaining a
serum prealbumin level.
Albumin is relatively insensitive to change of nutritional status. Our
body has a large pool of albumin and it could take up to 14 days for
albumin to come back to normal once the pool is depleted. Albumin
level could also be affected by one's renal function and hydration state.
Prealbumin is one of the earliest indicator for nutritional status now.
Normal level 16-35 mg/dL
A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer
and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected
side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring
two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse
practitioner?
A. Alopecia
B. Fatigue
C. Fever
D. Nausea - Correct Answer - fever
A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care
nurse practitioner's intervention is to:
A. hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
B. order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
C. perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
D. prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV. - Correct Answer - perform a
ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
Usual treatment are:
pg. 2
,mannitol and sedatives, surgery
due to acute elevation of ICP, surgery is preferred.
Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the
potential for confusion and delirium?
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Phenelzine (Nardil) - Correct Answer - Lorazepam (Ativan)
A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the
intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory
control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent
keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:
A. artificial tears preparations.
B. IV antibiotic administration.
C. local sulfonamide therapy.
D. topical steroid administration. - Correct Answer - artificial tears
preparations
After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for
multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his
follow up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has
changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:
A. consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
B. inspecting and excising the lesion.
C. prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
pg. 3
, D. recommending reevaluation in two weeks - Correct Answer -
consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with
substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment
depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute
care nurse practitioner assesses the patient's use of:
A. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
B. aspirin.
C. beta-blockers.
D. phosphodiesterase inhibitors. - Correct Answer - phosphodiesterase
inhibitors
PDE 5 is for ED, and it could interact with nitrates to further vasodilate
causing severe hypotension and death.
For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate
predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:
A. a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
B. an impaired functional status.
C. the availability of social support.
D. the patient's chronological age. - Correct Answer - an impaired
functional status.
An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a
patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity
does the nurse practitioner expect the patient's murmur to diminish?
A. Inhaling
pg. 4