OB ATI TEST A, B, C & D NEWEST 2026
TEST BANK| 4 VERSIONS (A, B, C AND D)
WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
1. When calculating a client’s EDD using Naegele’s rule based
on an LMP of November 27, what date should be given?
A) September 3
B) September 20
C) August 3
D) August 20
✅ Correct Answer: A) September 3
📖 Rationale: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting three
months from the first day of the LMP and then adding seven days.
From November 27, subtract three months to get August 27, then
add seven days to get September 3.
2. The nurse is discussing nutrition with a client at 10 weeks
of gestation. Which statement indicates correct
understanding of the teaching?
A) “My protein intake should increase to 60 grams per day.”
,B) “Drinking 2 liters of water daily is recommended.”
C) “I should increase my total daily calorie intake by 300 calories.”
D) “Taking 600 mcg of folic acid daily is recommended.”
✅ Correct Answer: D) 600 mcg of folic acid
📖 Rationale: The recommended daily intake of folic acid during
pregnancy is 600 mcg, which is crucial for preventing neural tube
defects. Protein needs actually increase to approximately 71
grams, fluid needs to about 3 liters, and calorie needs increase by
300–350 calories in the second and third trimesters.
3. A pregnant client asks about the function of the placenta.
Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) “The placenta excretes prolactin and insulin.”
B) “The placenta produces nutrients for the fetus.”
C) “The placenta secretes both estrogen and progesterone.”
D) “The placenta forms a protective barrier that is impenetrable.”
✅ Correct Answer: C) Secretes estrogen and progesterone
📖 Rationale: As an endocrine gland, the placenta produces key
hormones—including hCG, hPL, estrogen, and progesterone—to
maintain the pregnancy. It does not produce prolactin or insulin,
does not synthesize nutrients (it exchanges them), and is not a
complete barrier, as some bacteria and viruses can cross it.
4. A client at 34 weeks’ gestation presents with a severe
headache, visual spots, epigastric pain, and BP of 162/104
mmHg. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) FHR in the 140s with moderate variability
B) 3+ proteinuria on dipstick
C) Maternal heart rate of 88 bpm
D) Mild swelling of the ankles
✅ Correct Answer: B) 3+ proteinuria
,📖 Rationale: The client’s symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia.
3+ proteinuria confirms the diagnosis, signaling a need for
immediate notification of the provider and possible initiation of
magnesium sulfate. The other options are expected findings or do
not address the life-threatening maternal condition.
5. A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment. Which client
should the nurse prioritize to see first?
A) 11 weeks’ gestation with abdominal cramping.
B) 39 weeks’ gestation with contractions every 10 minutes.
C) 28 weeks’ gestation reporting decreased fetal movement.
D) 16 weeks’ gestation requesting prenatal vitamins.
✅ Correct Answer: C) 28 weeks’ gestation with decreased
fetal movement.
📖 Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a priority sign that may
indicate fetal compromise, requiring immediate follow-up. The
other options are not as urgent, as some cramping can be normal
and third-trimester contractions or requests for vitamins can wait.
6. A client at 30 weeks’ gestation has a BP of 150/96 mmHg,
3+ proteinuria, headache, and epigastric pain. Which
complication is likely developing?
A) Mild gestational hypertension
B) HELLP syndrome
C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
D) Preterm labor
✅ Correct Answer: B) HELLP syndrome
📖 Rationale: The combination of hypertension, proteinuria,
headache, and epigastric pain is classic for HELLP syndrome
(Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a severe form
of preeclampsia.
, 7. Which statement by a pregnant client indicates proper
understanding of protein’s role during pregnancy?
A) “Protein helps the fetus grow while I am pregnant.”
B) “Eating protein prevents gestational diabetes.”
C) “Consuming enough protein averts anemia.”
D) “Protein will help my baby develop strong teeth after birth.”
✅ Correct Answer: A) Promotes fetal growth
📖 Rationale: Adequate protein supports the rapid anabolic
growth of the fetus and maternal tissues. While protein-rich foods
like meat contain iron to help prevent anemia, the basic
physiologic need for protein is for growth.
8. A client at 25 weeks’ gestation reports dropping a cooking
utensil last week and now notices milk leaking from her
breast. How should the nurse respond?
A) “This could be a sign of preterm labor, so come in for an
assessment.”
B) “It is likely just colostrum, but if you are worried, we can check
it.”
C) “Try to pump both breasts for 15 minutes to see if the
discharge stops.”
D) “Reassure the client that this is an abnormal finding for this
stage.”
✅ Correct Answer: B) Likely colostrum
9. A client at 28 weeks’ gestation with gestational diabetes
has a fasting glucose of 95 mg/dL and a 2-hour postprandial
glucose of 162 mg/dL. According to ADA guidelines, which
finding requires immediate action?
A) Fasting glucose of 95 mg/dL (target <95 mg/dL)
TEST BANK| 4 VERSIONS (A, B, C AND D)
WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment
1. When calculating a client’s EDD using Naegele’s rule based
on an LMP of November 27, what date should be given?
A) September 3
B) September 20
C) August 3
D) August 20
✅ Correct Answer: A) September 3
📖 Rationale: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting three
months from the first day of the LMP and then adding seven days.
From November 27, subtract three months to get August 27, then
add seven days to get September 3.
2. The nurse is discussing nutrition with a client at 10 weeks
of gestation. Which statement indicates correct
understanding of the teaching?
A) “My protein intake should increase to 60 grams per day.”
,B) “Drinking 2 liters of water daily is recommended.”
C) “I should increase my total daily calorie intake by 300 calories.”
D) “Taking 600 mcg of folic acid daily is recommended.”
✅ Correct Answer: D) 600 mcg of folic acid
📖 Rationale: The recommended daily intake of folic acid during
pregnancy is 600 mcg, which is crucial for preventing neural tube
defects. Protein needs actually increase to approximately 71
grams, fluid needs to about 3 liters, and calorie needs increase by
300–350 calories in the second and third trimesters.
3. A pregnant client asks about the function of the placenta.
Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) “The placenta excretes prolactin and insulin.”
B) “The placenta produces nutrients for the fetus.”
C) “The placenta secretes both estrogen and progesterone.”
D) “The placenta forms a protective barrier that is impenetrable.”
✅ Correct Answer: C) Secretes estrogen and progesterone
📖 Rationale: As an endocrine gland, the placenta produces key
hormones—including hCG, hPL, estrogen, and progesterone—to
maintain the pregnancy. It does not produce prolactin or insulin,
does not synthesize nutrients (it exchanges them), and is not a
complete barrier, as some bacteria and viruses can cross it.
4. A client at 34 weeks’ gestation presents with a severe
headache, visual spots, epigastric pain, and BP of 162/104
mmHg. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) FHR in the 140s with moderate variability
B) 3+ proteinuria on dipstick
C) Maternal heart rate of 88 bpm
D) Mild swelling of the ankles
✅ Correct Answer: B) 3+ proteinuria
,📖 Rationale: The client’s symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia.
3+ proteinuria confirms the diagnosis, signaling a need for
immediate notification of the provider and possible initiation of
magnesium sulfate. The other options are expected findings or do
not address the life-threatening maternal condition.
5. A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment. Which client
should the nurse prioritize to see first?
A) 11 weeks’ gestation with abdominal cramping.
B) 39 weeks’ gestation with contractions every 10 minutes.
C) 28 weeks’ gestation reporting decreased fetal movement.
D) 16 weeks’ gestation requesting prenatal vitamins.
✅ Correct Answer: C) 28 weeks’ gestation with decreased
fetal movement.
📖 Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a priority sign that may
indicate fetal compromise, requiring immediate follow-up. The
other options are not as urgent, as some cramping can be normal
and third-trimester contractions or requests for vitamins can wait.
6. A client at 30 weeks’ gestation has a BP of 150/96 mmHg,
3+ proteinuria, headache, and epigastric pain. Which
complication is likely developing?
A) Mild gestational hypertension
B) HELLP syndrome
C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
D) Preterm labor
✅ Correct Answer: B) HELLP syndrome
📖 Rationale: The combination of hypertension, proteinuria,
headache, and epigastric pain is classic for HELLP syndrome
(Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a severe form
of preeclampsia.
, 7. Which statement by a pregnant client indicates proper
understanding of protein’s role during pregnancy?
A) “Protein helps the fetus grow while I am pregnant.”
B) “Eating protein prevents gestational diabetes.”
C) “Consuming enough protein averts anemia.”
D) “Protein will help my baby develop strong teeth after birth.”
✅ Correct Answer: A) Promotes fetal growth
📖 Rationale: Adequate protein supports the rapid anabolic
growth of the fetus and maternal tissues. While protein-rich foods
like meat contain iron to help prevent anemia, the basic
physiologic need for protein is for growth.
8. A client at 25 weeks’ gestation reports dropping a cooking
utensil last week and now notices milk leaking from her
breast. How should the nurse respond?
A) “This could be a sign of preterm labor, so come in for an
assessment.”
B) “It is likely just colostrum, but if you are worried, we can check
it.”
C) “Try to pump both breasts for 15 minutes to see if the
discharge stops.”
D) “Reassure the client that this is an abnormal finding for this
stage.”
✅ Correct Answer: B) Likely colostrum
9. A client at 28 weeks’ gestation with gestational diabetes
has a fasting glucose of 95 mg/dL and a 2-hour postprandial
glucose of 162 mg/dL. According to ADA guidelines, which
finding requires immediate action?
A) Fasting glucose of 95 mg/dL (target <95 mg/dL)
