ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored
Exam 2026|||questions and answers
with rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Comprehensive Topic Test
Exam Structure: This test contains 85 practice questions. For your convenience,
the exam has been divided into major content areas covered on the ATI
Fundamentals Proctored Exam.
Instructions: Read each question carefully. Select the best answer(s) for each
question. The correct answer and a detailed rationale are provided below each
question to facilitate learning.
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1-20)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which
type of isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Contact Precautions
• B. Droplet Precautions
• C. Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
• D. Protective Environment
Rationale: Active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via small droplet
nuclei that can remain airborne for extended periods. Airborne
Precautions require an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure airborne infection
isolation room (AIIR). Incorrect options: Contact Precautions are for multidrug-
resistant organisms (e.g., MRSA, VRE). Droplet Precautions are for infections like
,influenza or pertussis. Protective Environment is for immunocompromised clients
(e.g., stem cell transplant recipients).
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (PPD) to a client.
Which action is correct?
• A. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle with the bevel up.
• B. Massage the area after injection to disperse the solution.
• C. Inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative intradermally. (Correct
Answer)
• D. Use a 23-gauge needle for administration.
Rationale: The PPD test is administered intradermally (into the dermis) on the
inner forearm. The correct volume is 0.1 mL, using a tuberculin syringe with a 25-
27 gauge needle, inserted at a 5-15 degree angle. A small wheal (bleb) should
appear. Do not massage the area, as this can disperse the solution and alter results.
3. A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would compromise the
sterile field?
• A. Placing the sterile drape on a dry surface.
• B. Opening the sterile package away from the body.
• C. Holding sterile objects below waist level. (Correct Answer)
• D. Keeping the sterile field in sight at all times.
Rationale: The sterile field and any sterile items must be kept above waist
level because the waist and below are considered unsterile. Incorrect options: A
dry surface is required to maintain sterility (moisture wicks bacteria). Opening a
package away from the body prevents contamination. Keeping the field in sight
ensures awareness of any breaches.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which action is
correct when providing tracheostomy care?
• A. Use sterile technique when suctioning. (Correct Answer)
• B. Use the same suction catheter for the mouth and tracheostomy.
• C. Apply suction pressure while inserting the catheter.
, • D. Limit suctioning passes to 5 per session.
Rationale: The lower airway is sterile. Therefore, sterile technique, including a
sterile catheter and sterile gloves, is required for tracheostomy suctioning to
prevent infection. Incorrect options: Never use the same catheter for the mouth
and trachea. Suction should be applied during withdrawal, not insertion. Limit
suctioning passes to 2-3 and time to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia.
5. A nurse is applying restraints to a client. Which action is correct?
• A. Apply restraints snugly to limit all movement.
• B. Secure restraints to the side rails for easy access.
• C. Pad the client's wrists before applying restraints. (Correct Answer)
• D. Request a PRN (as needed) order for routine restraint use.
Rationale: Padding prevents skin breakdown and neurovascular injury. Restraints
should allow two fingers of space between the restraint and the client’s skin. PRN
orders for restraints are not permissible; an order must be obtained after an in-
person assessment. Restraints must be tied to a movable part of the bed frame, not
the side rail (which lowers and could cause injury).
6. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. What is
the nurse's first action?
• A. Call for help.
• B. Assess the client for injuries. (Correct Answer)
• C. Help the client back to bed.
• D. Complete an incident report.
Rationale: Before moving the client, the nurse must perform an initial assessment
to determine if injuries (e.g., fracture, head bleed) exist. Moving a client with an
unstable fracture or spinal injury can cause further harm. Only after assessing and
stabilizing should the nurse call for help to move the client.
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching about fire safety. Which statement
indicates understanding?
• A. "I will use a space heater in the bathroom."
• B. "I will smoke only when I am lying down."
Exam 2026|||questions and answers
with rationales/graded A+/2026
update/100% correct /instant
download
Comprehensive Topic Test
Exam Structure: This test contains 85 practice questions. For your convenience,
the exam has been divided into major content areas covered on the ATI
Fundamentals Proctored Exam.
Instructions: Read each question carefully. Select the best answer(s) for each
question. The correct answer and a detailed rationale are provided below each
question to facilitate learning.
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1-20)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which
type of isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Contact Precautions
• B. Droplet Precautions
• C. Airborne Precautions (Correct Answer)
• D. Protective Environment
Rationale: Active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via small droplet
nuclei that can remain airborne for extended periods. Airborne
Precautions require an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure airborne infection
isolation room (AIIR). Incorrect options: Contact Precautions are for multidrug-
resistant organisms (e.g., MRSA, VRE). Droplet Precautions are for infections like
,influenza or pertussis. Protective Environment is for immunocompromised clients
(e.g., stem cell transplant recipients).
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (PPD) to a client.
Which action is correct?
• A. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle with the bevel up.
• B. Massage the area after injection to disperse the solution.
• C. Inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative intradermally. (Correct
Answer)
• D. Use a 23-gauge needle for administration.
Rationale: The PPD test is administered intradermally (into the dermis) on the
inner forearm. The correct volume is 0.1 mL, using a tuberculin syringe with a 25-
27 gauge needle, inserted at a 5-15 degree angle. A small wheal (bleb) should
appear. Do not massage the area, as this can disperse the solution and alter results.
3. A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would compromise the
sterile field?
• A. Placing the sterile drape on a dry surface.
• B. Opening the sterile package away from the body.
• C. Holding sterile objects below waist level. (Correct Answer)
• D. Keeping the sterile field in sight at all times.
Rationale: The sterile field and any sterile items must be kept above waist
level because the waist and below are considered unsterile. Incorrect options: A
dry surface is required to maintain sterility (moisture wicks bacteria). Opening a
package away from the body prevents contamination. Keeping the field in sight
ensures awareness of any breaches.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which action is
correct when providing tracheostomy care?
• A. Use sterile technique when suctioning. (Correct Answer)
• B. Use the same suction catheter for the mouth and tracheostomy.
• C. Apply suction pressure while inserting the catheter.
, • D. Limit suctioning passes to 5 per session.
Rationale: The lower airway is sterile. Therefore, sterile technique, including a
sterile catheter and sterile gloves, is required for tracheostomy suctioning to
prevent infection. Incorrect options: Never use the same catheter for the mouth
and trachea. Suction should be applied during withdrawal, not insertion. Limit
suctioning passes to 2-3 and time to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia.
5. A nurse is applying restraints to a client. Which action is correct?
• A. Apply restraints snugly to limit all movement.
• B. Secure restraints to the side rails for easy access.
• C. Pad the client's wrists before applying restraints. (Correct Answer)
• D. Request a PRN (as needed) order for routine restraint use.
Rationale: Padding prevents skin breakdown and neurovascular injury. Restraints
should allow two fingers of space between the restraint and the client’s skin. PRN
orders for restraints are not permissible; an order must be obtained after an in-
person assessment. Restraints must be tied to a movable part of the bed frame, not
the side rail (which lowers and could cause injury).
6. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. What is
the nurse's first action?
• A. Call for help.
• B. Assess the client for injuries. (Correct Answer)
• C. Help the client back to bed.
• D. Complete an incident report.
Rationale: Before moving the client, the nurse must perform an initial assessment
to determine if injuries (e.g., fracture, head bleed) exist. Moving a client with an
unstable fracture or spinal injury can cause further harm. Only after assessing and
stabilizing should the nurse call for help to move the client.
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching about fire safety. Which statement
indicates understanding?
• A. "I will use a space heater in the bathroom."
• B. "I will smoke only when I am lying down."
