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NCLEX-RN PHARMACOLOGY Complete Practice Questions & Verified Answers Pack 1 & Pack 2 Combined | 50 Questions with Rationales | 2025/2026 Edition

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NCLEX-RN PHARMACOLOGY Complete Practice Questions & Verified Answers Pack 1 & Pack 2 Combined | 50 Questions with Rationales | 2025/2026 Edition NCLEX-RN PHARMACOLOGY Complete Practice Questions & Verified Answers Pack 1 & Pack 2 Combined | 50 Questions with Rationales | 2025/2026 Edition

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NCLEX-RN PHARMACOLOGY
Complete Practice Questions & Verified Answers
Pack 1 & Pack 2 Combined | 50 Questions with Rationales | 2025/2026 Edition
Topics: Core Pharmacology | Anticoagulants | Psychiatric Medications | Antibiotics




PACK 1 — Core Pharmacology (Questions 1–25)


A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which assessment finding
Q1
should prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?


A) Blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg

✓ B) Apical pulse of 54 bpm

C) Respiratory rate of 18

D) Temperature of 37.2°C


Correct Answer: B) Apical pulse of 54 bpm

Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. An apical pulse below 60 bpm is a contraindication to
administration. Always take apical pulse for a full minute before giving digoxin.




A client is taking warfarin. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to consume
Q2
consistently and in moderate amounts?


A) Bananas

✓ B) Spinach

C) Oranges

D) White rice


Correct Answer: B) Spinach

,Rationale: Spinach is high in Vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effect. Clients
don't need to avoid it entirely but must keep intake consistent to maintain stable INR levels.




A nurse administers IV vancomycin too rapidly. The client develops flushing and
Q3
redness of the face, neck, and chest. What is this reaction called?


A) Anaphylaxis

B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

✓ C) Red Man Syndrome

D) Serum sickness


Correct Answer: C) Red Man Syndrome

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin, triggering histamine
release. It is not a true allergic reaction. The infusion should be slowed and diphenhydramine may
be given.




A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which lab value is most important for
Q4
the nurse to monitor?


A) Blood glucose

✓ B) Serum lithium level

C) Liver enzymes

D) Hemoglobin


Correct Answer: B) Serum lithium level

Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6-1.2 mEq/L). Levels above 1.5 mEq/L are
toxic. Regular monitoring prevents toxicity, which presents as tremors, confusion, and seizures.




A nurse is teaching a client about metformin. Which condition is an absolute
Q5
contraindication for its use?

, A) Hypertension

B) Asthma

✓ C) Renal impairment

D) Hypothyroidism


Correct Answer: C) Renal impairment

Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in renal impairment because it is excreted by the kidneys.
Accumulation leads to lactic acidosis, a life-threatening complication.




A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis should be monitored for deficiency of
Q6
which vitamin?


A) Vitamin C

B) Vitamin D

✓ C) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

D) Vitamin B12


Correct Answer: C) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

Rationale: INH interferes with pyridoxine metabolism, leading to peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B6
supplementation is routinely given alongside INH to prevent this.




A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin infusion. Which medication should be
Q7
readily available as an antidote?


A) Vitamin K

✓ B) Protamine sulfate

C) Flumazenil

D) Naloxone

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