SLP PRAXIS EXAMS NEWEST 2026 PACKAGE DEAL|
DIFFERENT VERSIONS WITH COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+| SPEECH-LANGUAGE
PATHOLOGY PRAXIS EXAM REVIEWS (MOST RECENT!!)
Q1: Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for
tasting sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B) Facial nerve (CN VII)
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Answer: B
Rationale: CN VII (facial) carries taste from the anterior 2/3 of
the tongue via the chorda tympani. CN IX carries taste from the
posterior 1/3; CN V is general sensation; CN XII is tongue
movement.
Q2: A 4-year-old child presents with a frontal lisp (produces
/θ/ for /s/). This is considered:
A) A distortion typical for this age
1
,B) A phonological process that should resolve by age 3
C) A developmental error that is typically outgrown by age 4.5
D) A motor speech disorder requiring immediate intervention
Answer: C
Rationale: A frontal lisp (/θ/ for /s/) is common in young
children and often resolves spontaneously by age 4½–5 years.
Intervention is indicated if it persists beyond that age.
Q3: Which of the following is the most appropriate
assessment tool for evaluating a preschooler’s narrative
language skills?
A) Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT-5)
B) Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation (GFTA-3)
C) Test of Narrative Language (TNL)
D) Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals (CELF-5) – Core
Language Score
Answer: C
Rationale: The Test of Narrative Language specifically assesses
story retelling and comprehension. PPVT measures single-word
vocabulary; GFTA measures articulation; CELF’s Core Language
Score is broader but not narrative-specific.
2
,Q4: A patient with a right hemisphere stroke demonstrates left
neglect, poor pragmatics, and difficulty with humor
interpretation. Which intervention is most appropriate initially?
A) Constraint-induced language therapy
B) Visual scanning training with anchor cues on the left
C) Melodic intonation therapy for propositional speech
D) Oral motor exercises for lingual range of motion
Answer: B
Rationale: Left neglect after right hemisphere stroke is initially
treated with visual scanning training. Anchoring (red line on the
left) and scanning tasks improve awareness. The other options
target aphasia or motor speech.
Q5: A child with childhood apraxia of speech (CAS) is most
likely to exhibit:
A) Consistent errors on the same phonemes across trials
B) Groping oral-motor movements and inconsistent errors
C) Dysarthric speech with slow rate and hypernasality
D) Fluent speech with occasional word-finding pauses
3
, Answer: B
Rationale: CAS is a motor planning disorder. Key features
include groping, inconsistent errors on repeated productions, and
difficulty with prosody. Oral-motor groping is a hallmark.
Q6: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of
spastic dysarthria?
A) Fluctuating hypernasality and breathiness
B) Harsh, strained-strangled vocal quality with slow rate
C) Monopitch, monoloudness, and irregular articulatory
breakdowns
D) Rapid, mumbling speech with distorted vowels
Answer: B
Rationale: Spastic dysarthria (upper motor neuron) presents with
strained-strangled voice, slow rate, and imprecise consonants.
Option A describes flaccid dysarthria; C describes ataxic; D
describes hypokinetic.
Q7: A 6-year-old uses “wabbit” for “rabbit,” “thun” for
“sun,” and “tup” for “cup.” The primary pattern is:
A) Final consonant deletion and stopping
4
DIFFERENT VERSIONS WITH COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+| SPEECH-LANGUAGE
PATHOLOGY PRAXIS EXAM REVIEWS (MOST RECENT!!)
Q1: Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for
tasting sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
A) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B) Facial nerve (CN VII)
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Answer: B
Rationale: CN VII (facial) carries taste from the anterior 2/3 of
the tongue via the chorda tympani. CN IX carries taste from the
posterior 1/3; CN V is general sensation; CN XII is tongue
movement.
Q2: A 4-year-old child presents with a frontal lisp (produces
/θ/ for /s/). This is considered:
A) A distortion typical for this age
1
,B) A phonological process that should resolve by age 3
C) A developmental error that is typically outgrown by age 4.5
D) A motor speech disorder requiring immediate intervention
Answer: C
Rationale: A frontal lisp (/θ/ for /s/) is common in young
children and often resolves spontaneously by age 4½–5 years.
Intervention is indicated if it persists beyond that age.
Q3: Which of the following is the most appropriate
assessment tool for evaluating a preschooler’s narrative
language skills?
A) Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT-5)
B) Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation (GFTA-3)
C) Test of Narrative Language (TNL)
D) Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals (CELF-5) – Core
Language Score
Answer: C
Rationale: The Test of Narrative Language specifically assesses
story retelling and comprehension. PPVT measures single-word
vocabulary; GFTA measures articulation; CELF’s Core Language
Score is broader but not narrative-specific.
2
,Q4: A patient with a right hemisphere stroke demonstrates left
neglect, poor pragmatics, and difficulty with humor
interpretation. Which intervention is most appropriate initially?
A) Constraint-induced language therapy
B) Visual scanning training with anchor cues on the left
C) Melodic intonation therapy for propositional speech
D) Oral motor exercises for lingual range of motion
Answer: B
Rationale: Left neglect after right hemisphere stroke is initially
treated with visual scanning training. Anchoring (red line on the
left) and scanning tasks improve awareness. The other options
target aphasia or motor speech.
Q5: A child with childhood apraxia of speech (CAS) is most
likely to exhibit:
A) Consistent errors on the same phonemes across trials
B) Groping oral-motor movements and inconsistent errors
C) Dysarthric speech with slow rate and hypernasality
D) Fluent speech with occasional word-finding pauses
3
, Answer: B
Rationale: CAS is a motor planning disorder. Key features
include groping, inconsistent errors on repeated productions, and
difficulty with prosody. Oral-motor groping is a hallmark.
Q6: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of
spastic dysarthria?
A) Fluctuating hypernasality and breathiness
B) Harsh, strained-strangled vocal quality with slow rate
C) Monopitch, monoloudness, and irregular articulatory
breakdowns
D) Rapid, mumbling speech with distorted vowels
Answer: B
Rationale: Spastic dysarthria (upper motor neuron) presents with
strained-strangled voice, slow rate, and imprecise consonants.
Option A describes flaccid dysarthria; C describes ataxic; D
describes hypokinetic.
Q7: A 6-year-old uses “wabbit” for “rabbit,” “thun” for
“sun,” and “tup” for “cup.” The primary pattern is:
A) Final consonant deletion and stopping
4
