EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG
EXIT EXAM VERSION 1 / MED SURG
HESI EVOLVE ELSEVIER NEWEST
2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
What instruction should the nurse give a client who is diagnosed with
fibrocystic changes of the breast?
A) Observe cyst size fluctuations as a sign of malignancy.
B) Use estrogen supplements to reduce breast discomfort.
C) Notify the healthcare provider if whitish nipple discharge occurs.
D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly.
D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly.
Fibrocystic changes in the breast are related to excess fibrous tissue,
proliferation of mammary ducts and cyst formation that cause edema and
nerve irritation. These changes obscure typical diagnostic tests, such as
mammography, due to an increased breast density. Women with fibrocystic
breasts should be instructed to carefully perform monthly BSE (D) and
consider changes in any previous "lumpiness." Fibrocystic disease does
not increase the risk of breast cancer (A). Cyst size fluctuates with the
menstrual cycle, and typically lessens after menopause, and responds with
a heightened sensitivity to circulating estrogen (B), which is not indicated.
Nipple discharge associated with fibrocystic breasts is often milky or
watery-milky and is an expected finding (C).
The nurse is assessing a client's laboratory values following administration
of chemotherapy. Which lab value leads the nurse to suspect that the client
is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)?
,A) Serum PTT of 10 seconds.
B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
C) Oxygen saturation of 90%.
D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl.
B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
TLS results in hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and
hyperphosphatemia. A serum calcium level of 5 (B), which is low, is an
indicator of possible tumor lysis syndrome. (A, C, and D) are not
particularly related to TLS.
A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When
developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, "The
client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure." Which symptoms are
most important to teach the client?
A) Facial flushing.
B) Fever.
C) Pounding headache.
D) Feelings of dizziness.
D) Feelings of dizziness.
Feelings of dizziness may occur as the result of a decreased heart rate,
leading to decreased cardiac output (D). (A and C) will not occur as the
result of pacemaker failure. (B) may be an indication of infection
postoperatively, but is not an indication of pacemaker failure.
A client taking a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum
potassium level of 3. The nurse anticipates which change in prescription for
the client?
A) The dosage of the diuretic will be decreased.
B) The diuretic will be discontinued.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
D) The dosage of the diuretic will be increased.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
This client's potassium level is too low (normal is 3.5 to 5). Taking a
thiazide diuretic often results in a loss of potassium, so a potassium
,supplement needs to be prescribed to restore a normal serum potassium
level (C). (A, B, and D) are not recommended actions for restoring a normal
serum potassium level.
A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her
breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?
A) Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an
appointment.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an
examination.
C) Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are
benign.
D) If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for
lumps.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an
examination.
(B) provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety
most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a
potential problem. (A) postpones treatment if the lump is malignant, and
does not relieve the client's anxiety. (C and D) provide false reassurance
and do not help relieve anxiety.
A client experiencing uncontrolled atrial fibrillation is admitted to the
telemetry unit. What initial medication should the nurse anticipate
administering to the client?
A) Xylocaine (Lidocaine).
B) Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin).
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin).
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin).
Digoxin (Lanoxin) (D) is administered for uncontrolled, symptomatic atrial
fibrillation resulting in a decreased cardiac output. Digoxin slows the rate of
conduction by prolonging the refractory period of the AV node, thus slowing
the ventricular response, decreasing the heart rate, and effecting cardiac
, output. (A, B, and C) are not indicated in the initial treatment of uncontrolled
atrial fibrillation.
A client taking furosemide (Lasix), reports difficulty sleeping. What question
is important for the nurse to ask the client?
A) What dose of medication are you taking?
B) Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
C) Have you lost weight recently?
D) At what time do you take your medication?
D) At what time do you take your medication?
The nurse needs to first determine at what time of day the client takes the
Lasix (D). Because of the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the
medication in the morning to prevent nocturia. The actual dose of
medication (A) is of less importance than the time taken. (B) is not related
to the insomnia. (C) is valuable information about the effect of the diuretic,
but is not likely to be related to insomnia.
The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman
who had a left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. Which factor puts this
client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
B) She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.
C) Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for
hypertension.
D) Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano.
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
A radical mastectomy interrupts lymph flow, and the increased lymph flow
that occurs in response to the insect bite increases the risk for the
occurrence of lymphedema (A). (B) is not a factor. Lymphedema is not
significantly related to vascular circulation (C). Only overuse of the arm,
such as weight-lifting, would cause lymphedema--(D) would not.
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm
about reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information
EXIT EXAM VERSION 1 / MED SURG
HESI EVOLVE ELSEVIER NEWEST
2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
What instruction should the nurse give a client who is diagnosed with
fibrocystic changes of the breast?
A) Observe cyst size fluctuations as a sign of malignancy.
B) Use estrogen supplements to reduce breast discomfort.
C) Notify the healthcare provider if whitish nipple discharge occurs.
D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly.
D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly.
Fibrocystic changes in the breast are related to excess fibrous tissue,
proliferation of mammary ducts and cyst formation that cause edema and
nerve irritation. These changes obscure typical diagnostic tests, such as
mammography, due to an increased breast density. Women with fibrocystic
breasts should be instructed to carefully perform monthly BSE (D) and
consider changes in any previous "lumpiness." Fibrocystic disease does
not increase the risk of breast cancer (A). Cyst size fluctuates with the
menstrual cycle, and typically lessens after menopause, and responds with
a heightened sensitivity to circulating estrogen (B), which is not indicated.
Nipple discharge associated with fibrocystic breasts is often milky or
watery-milky and is an expected finding (C).
The nurse is assessing a client's laboratory values following administration
of chemotherapy. Which lab value leads the nurse to suspect that the client
is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)?
,A) Serum PTT of 10 seconds.
B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
C) Oxygen saturation of 90%.
D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl.
B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
TLS results in hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and
hyperphosphatemia. A serum calcium level of 5 (B), which is low, is an
indicator of possible tumor lysis syndrome. (A, C, and D) are not
particularly related to TLS.
A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When
developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, "The
client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure." Which symptoms are
most important to teach the client?
A) Facial flushing.
B) Fever.
C) Pounding headache.
D) Feelings of dizziness.
D) Feelings of dizziness.
Feelings of dizziness may occur as the result of a decreased heart rate,
leading to decreased cardiac output (D). (A and C) will not occur as the
result of pacemaker failure. (B) may be an indication of infection
postoperatively, but is not an indication of pacemaker failure.
A client taking a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum
potassium level of 3. The nurse anticipates which change in prescription for
the client?
A) The dosage of the diuretic will be decreased.
B) The diuretic will be discontinued.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
D) The dosage of the diuretic will be increased.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
This client's potassium level is too low (normal is 3.5 to 5). Taking a
thiazide diuretic often results in a loss of potassium, so a potassium
,supplement needs to be prescribed to restore a normal serum potassium
level (C). (A, B, and D) are not recommended actions for restoring a normal
serum potassium level.
A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her
breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?
A) Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an
appointment.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an
examination.
C) Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are
benign.
D) If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for
lumps.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an
examination.
(B) provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety
most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a
potential problem. (A) postpones treatment if the lump is malignant, and
does not relieve the client's anxiety. (C and D) provide false reassurance
and do not help relieve anxiety.
A client experiencing uncontrolled atrial fibrillation is admitted to the
telemetry unit. What initial medication should the nurse anticipate
administering to the client?
A) Xylocaine (Lidocaine).
B) Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin).
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin).
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin).
Digoxin (Lanoxin) (D) is administered for uncontrolled, symptomatic atrial
fibrillation resulting in a decreased cardiac output. Digoxin slows the rate of
conduction by prolonging the refractory period of the AV node, thus slowing
the ventricular response, decreasing the heart rate, and effecting cardiac
, output. (A, B, and C) are not indicated in the initial treatment of uncontrolled
atrial fibrillation.
A client taking furosemide (Lasix), reports difficulty sleeping. What question
is important for the nurse to ask the client?
A) What dose of medication are you taking?
B) Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
C) Have you lost weight recently?
D) At what time do you take your medication?
D) At what time do you take your medication?
The nurse needs to first determine at what time of day the client takes the
Lasix (D). Because of the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the
medication in the morning to prevent nocturia. The actual dose of
medication (A) is of less importance than the time taken. (B) is not related
to the insomnia. (C) is valuable information about the effect of the diuretic,
but is not likely to be related to insomnia.
The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman
who had a left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. Which factor puts this
client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
B) She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.
C) Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for
hypertension.
D) Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano.
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
A radical mastectomy interrupts lymph flow, and the increased lymph flow
that occurs in response to the insect bite increases the risk for the
occurrence of lymphedema (A). (B) is not a factor. Lymphedema is not
significantly related to vascular circulation (C). Only overuse of the arm,
such as weight-lifting, would cause lymphedema--(D) would not.
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm
about reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information
