NURSING SKILLS CHECKOFF EXAMS LATEST 2026
UPDATE 100 QUESTIONS AND DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS FROM ACTUAL EXAMS TEST GRADE A+
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female patient. Which action
demonstrates the correct sterile technique?
A) Open the inner catheter wrapper after donning sterile gloves
B) Use the non-dominant hand to cleanse the perineum and remain sterile
C) Maintain the dominant hand sterile while using the non-dominant hand to handle
contaminated items
D) Place the sterile drape with the plastic side facing up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The dominant hand remains sterile throughout the procedure. The non-dominant
hand is considered clean but not sterile and is used for labia separation and cleansing. Opening
the inner wrapper (A) should occur before donning sterile gloves. The non-dominant hand should
not remain sterile (B) because it touches the patient's perineum. The sterile drape's plastic side
faces down (D) to prevent moisture wicking.
Question 2
When performing tracheostomy suctioning, the nurse should limit each suction attempt to
which duration?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Suctioning should not exceed 10 seconds to prevent hypoxia and trauma. Five
seconds (A) is often too brief to clear secretions effectively. Fifteen seconds (C) and 20 seconds
(D) increase the risk of hypoxemia, bradycardia, and mucosal damage.
Question 3
A nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin. Which site is most
,appropriate?
A) Ventrogluteal muscle
B) Deltoid muscle
C) Abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin given subcutaneously in the
abdomen to reduce pain and bruising. The ventrogluteal (A), deltoid (B), and vastus lateralis (D)
are intramuscular sites not appropriate for this medication.
Question 4
During a sterile wound dressing change, the nurse drops a sterile gauze pad onto the bedside
table 1 inch from the sterile field. What is the best action?
A) Pick it up and use it because it is close to the field
B) Discard it and obtain a new sterile gauze
C) Flip it over and use the opposite side
D) Dip it in sterile saline before use
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: Any sterile item falling outside the sterile field's 1-inch border is considered
contaminated. Using it (A or C) risks infection. Saline (D) does not sterilize the gauze.*
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient's peripheral IV site. Which finding requires immediate removal of
the IV?
A) Slight erythema at the insertion site
B) Edema and coolness around the site
C) A small amount of dried blood under the dressing
D) Patient reports mild tenderness when flushed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Edema and coolness indicate infiltration (fluid entering tissues). Erythema (A) may
be early phlebitis but not immediate removal if mild. Dried blood (C) is common. Mild tenderness
(D) can occur with infusion; coolness with edema confirms infiltration requiring removal.
,Question 6
When inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube for decompression, the nurse should place the patient
in which position?
A) Supine with head flat
B) Semi-Fowler's with head tilted forward
C) Left lateral recumbent
D) Prone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Semi-Fowler's with head tilted forward closes the trachea and opens the
esophagus, facilitating passage. Supine (A) risks aspiration and airway insertion. Left lateral (C)
is for enemas. Prone (D) is unsafe for NG insertion.
Question 7
The nurse is measuring a patient's blood pressure manually. The first Korotkoff sound represents
which value?
A) Diastolic pressure
B) Systolic pressure
C) Mean arterial pressure
D) Pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The first clear tapping sound is systolic pressure. Diastolic (A) is the fifth sound
(disappearance). Mean arterial pressure (C) is calculated. Pulse pressure (D) is the difference
between systolic and diastolic.
Question 8
A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment. Which adventitious sound indicates
narrowed airways from asthma?
A) Fine crackles
B) Coarse crackles
C) Wheezes
D) Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wheezes are high-pitched continuous sounds from narrowed airways
(asthma/COPD). Fine (A) and coarse crackles (B) indicate fluid. Pleural friction rub (D) is inflamed
pleura rubbing.
, Question 9
When applying a condom catheter to a male patient, how much space should be left between
the penis tip and the catheter's drainage hole?
A) 0.5 inch
B) 1 to 2 inches
C) 3 to 4 inches
D) No space; it should touch
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: One to two inches prevents pressure necrosis and allows urine flow. Half an inch
(A) is too close; 3-4 inches (C) causes twisting. No space (D) risks tip erosion and blockage.*
Question 10
The nurse is preparing to remove a patient's peripheral IV. Which action is correct?
A) Remove the dressing, then withdraw the catheter at a 90° angle
B) Apply pressure to the site for 30 seconds after removal
C) Withdraw the catheter parallel to the skin and apply pressure for 2-5 minutes
D) Cut the catheter tip for culture before disposal
Correct Answer: C
*Explanation: Withdrawing parallel to skin prevents vein damage; 2-5 minutes of pressure
ensures hemostasis. A 90° angle (A) damages the vein. 30 seconds (B) is insufficient for
anticoagulated patients. Cutting the tip (D) is not routine and risks needlestick injury.*
Question 11
A nurse is inserting a Foley catheter. Where should the nurse place the lubricant?
A) On the catheter's distal 1-2 inches
B) On the entire length of the catheter
C) On the balloon port only
D) On the catheter's tip and proximal 1-3 inches
Correct Answer: D
*Explanation: Lubricant on the tip and proximal 1-3 inches reduces friction during insertion.
Distal 1-2 inches (A) is too little. Entire length (B) wastes lubricant and makes handling slippery.
Balloon port (C) is irrelevant.*
UPDATE 100 QUESTIONS AND DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS FROM ACTUAL EXAMS TEST GRADE A+
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female patient. Which action
demonstrates the correct sterile technique?
A) Open the inner catheter wrapper after donning sterile gloves
B) Use the non-dominant hand to cleanse the perineum and remain sterile
C) Maintain the dominant hand sterile while using the non-dominant hand to handle
contaminated items
D) Place the sterile drape with the plastic side facing up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The dominant hand remains sterile throughout the procedure. The non-dominant
hand is considered clean but not sterile and is used for labia separation and cleansing. Opening
the inner wrapper (A) should occur before donning sterile gloves. The non-dominant hand should
not remain sterile (B) because it touches the patient's perineum. The sterile drape's plastic side
faces down (D) to prevent moisture wicking.
Question 2
When performing tracheostomy suctioning, the nurse should limit each suction attempt to
which duration?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Suctioning should not exceed 10 seconds to prevent hypoxia and trauma. Five
seconds (A) is often too brief to clear secretions effectively. Fifteen seconds (C) and 20 seconds
(D) increase the risk of hypoxemia, bradycardia, and mucosal damage.
Question 3
A nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin. Which site is most
,appropriate?
A) Ventrogluteal muscle
B) Deltoid muscle
C) Abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin given subcutaneously in the
abdomen to reduce pain and bruising. The ventrogluteal (A), deltoid (B), and vastus lateralis (D)
are intramuscular sites not appropriate for this medication.
Question 4
During a sterile wound dressing change, the nurse drops a sterile gauze pad onto the bedside
table 1 inch from the sterile field. What is the best action?
A) Pick it up and use it because it is close to the field
B) Discard it and obtain a new sterile gauze
C) Flip it over and use the opposite side
D) Dip it in sterile saline before use
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: Any sterile item falling outside the sterile field's 1-inch border is considered
contaminated. Using it (A or C) risks infection. Saline (D) does not sterilize the gauze.*
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient's peripheral IV site. Which finding requires immediate removal of
the IV?
A) Slight erythema at the insertion site
B) Edema and coolness around the site
C) A small amount of dried blood under the dressing
D) Patient reports mild tenderness when flushed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Edema and coolness indicate infiltration (fluid entering tissues). Erythema (A) may
be early phlebitis but not immediate removal if mild. Dried blood (C) is common. Mild tenderness
(D) can occur with infusion; coolness with edema confirms infiltration requiring removal.
,Question 6
When inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube for decompression, the nurse should place the patient
in which position?
A) Supine with head flat
B) Semi-Fowler's with head tilted forward
C) Left lateral recumbent
D) Prone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Semi-Fowler's with head tilted forward closes the trachea and opens the
esophagus, facilitating passage. Supine (A) risks aspiration and airway insertion. Left lateral (C)
is for enemas. Prone (D) is unsafe for NG insertion.
Question 7
The nurse is measuring a patient's blood pressure manually. The first Korotkoff sound represents
which value?
A) Diastolic pressure
B) Systolic pressure
C) Mean arterial pressure
D) Pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The first clear tapping sound is systolic pressure. Diastolic (A) is the fifth sound
(disappearance). Mean arterial pressure (C) is calculated. Pulse pressure (D) is the difference
between systolic and diastolic.
Question 8
A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment. Which adventitious sound indicates
narrowed airways from asthma?
A) Fine crackles
B) Coarse crackles
C) Wheezes
D) Pleural friction rub
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wheezes are high-pitched continuous sounds from narrowed airways
(asthma/COPD). Fine (A) and coarse crackles (B) indicate fluid. Pleural friction rub (D) is inflamed
pleura rubbing.
, Question 9
When applying a condom catheter to a male patient, how much space should be left between
the penis tip and the catheter's drainage hole?
A) 0.5 inch
B) 1 to 2 inches
C) 3 to 4 inches
D) No space; it should touch
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: One to two inches prevents pressure necrosis and allows urine flow. Half an inch
(A) is too close; 3-4 inches (C) causes twisting. No space (D) risks tip erosion and blockage.*
Question 10
The nurse is preparing to remove a patient's peripheral IV. Which action is correct?
A) Remove the dressing, then withdraw the catheter at a 90° angle
B) Apply pressure to the site for 30 seconds after removal
C) Withdraw the catheter parallel to the skin and apply pressure for 2-5 minutes
D) Cut the catheter tip for culture before disposal
Correct Answer: C
*Explanation: Withdrawing parallel to skin prevents vein damage; 2-5 minutes of pressure
ensures hemostasis. A 90° angle (A) damages the vein. 30 seconds (B) is insufficient for
anticoagulated patients. Cutting the tip (D) is not routine and risks needlestick injury.*
Question 11
A nurse is inserting a Foley catheter. Where should the nurse place the lubricant?
A) On the catheter's distal 1-2 inches
B) On the entire length of the catheter
C) On the balloon port only
D) On the catheter's tip and proximal 1-3 inches
Correct Answer: D
*Explanation: Lubricant on the tip and proximal 1-3 inches reduces friction during insertion.
Distal 1-2 inches (A) is too little. Entire length (B) wastes lubricant and makes handling slippery.
Balloon port (C) is irrelevant.*
