Pass your NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm Exam and prepare for AANP/ANCC board certification with this comprehensive study guide featuring 300 high-yield practice questions and detailed rationales!
This essential resource covers core topics for the Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) midterm including hypertension management (first-line add-on to ACE inhibitor is amlodipine (CCB) or thiazide diuretic; resistant hypertension on 3+ meds including diuretic - add spironolactone; methyldopa first-line for chronic hypertension in pregnancy), hypothyroidism (levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration - start low in elderly; methimazole is for hyperthyroidism), diabetes with albuminuria (ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) preferred for renal protection), severe preeclampsia at 28 weeks (magnesium sulfate and admission - BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria requires hospital admission), aortic dissection (tearing chest pain radiating to back with asymmetric BP between arms - requires immediate CT angiography), alendronate patient teaching (take on empty stomach with full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes to prevent esophagitis), ACL tear (positive Lachman test highly sensitive and specific), COPD GOLD classification (FEV1 45% predicted = GOLD 3 Severe), pheochromocytoma (episodic palpitations, sweating, headache, hypertension - 24-hour urinary metanephrines best screening test), epiglottitis (stridor + drooling + sitting upright - immediate airway assessment in OR - airway emergency), thyroid nodule with normal TSH (thyroid ultrasound with risk stratification (TI-RADS) first step; FNA for nodules 1 cm with suspicious features), testicular torsion (acute severe testicular pain, nausea, vomiting, absent cremasteric reflex - emergent surgical exploration within 6 hours), warfarin management (INR 4.5 without bleeding - hold warfarin for 1 day and recheck; vitamin K for INR 10 or bleeding), uncomplicated UTI in non-pregnant woman (nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID for 5 days first-line), early localized Lyme disease (erythema migrans rash - doxycycline 100 mg BID for 10-14 days), suspected pulmonary embolism (CT pulmonary angiography gold standard; start heparin if high suspicion), duodenal ulcer (epigastric burning pain worse with fasting, improves with food - NSAID use), osteoporosis (T-score ≤ -2.5 indicates osteoporosis; alendronate first-line bisphosphonate), threatened abortion (vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os and viable intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasound), hepatic encephalopathy (confusion, asterixis, elevated ammonia - lactulose first-line), croup (barking cough, inspiratory stridor worse at night, no drooling, viral prodrome - dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg for moderate-severe), heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF EF 35% on lisinopril, carvedilol, furosemide - add spironolactone (MRA) to reduce mortality), spontaneous pneumothorax (tall, thin young male with sudden dyspnea and sharp chest pain after lifting), rheumatoid arthritis (methotrexate first-line DMARD; anti-CCP antibody more specific than RF), acute gout flare (sudden red, swollen, painful great toe - colchicine 1.2 mg then 0.6 mg 1 hour later within 24 hours; do not start allopurinol during acute flare), hoarseness in smoker 3 weeks (direct laryngoscopy to rule out laryngeal cancer), hyperthyroidism (TSH 0.01 - check free T4 and T3 to confirm), infant with fever and bulging fontanelle (lumbar puncture for meningitis - CT first if concern for mass effect), hemophilia A acute hemarthrosis (factor VIII replacement - avoid NSAIDs), early-stage breast cancer ER/PR positive HER2 negative (surgical excision first - lumpectomy or mastectomy; hormonal therapy follows surgery), BPH (obstructive symptoms with smooth enlarged prostate on DRE, PSA normal or mildly elevated - tamsulosin first-line), acute pancreatitis (severe abdominal pain radiating to back, lipase 3x normal - heavy alcohol use history; initial management: IV fluids, NPO, pain control), SLE most specific antibody (anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith), Kawasaki disease (fever 5 days plus 4 of 5 criteria - conjunctivitis, oral changes, rash, extremity changes, lymphadenopathy - requires IVIG to prevent coronary aneurysms), achalasia (dysphagia to both solids and liquids, "bird-beak" on barium swallow - failure of LES to relax), primary syphilis (painless chancre, darkfield microscopy shows spirochetes - benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM), TIA (transient focal neurologic deficit resolved within 24 hours - urgent evaluation within 24-48 hours with brain imaging and carotid ultrasound to prevent subsequent stroke), placenta previa (painless third-trimester bleeding - immediate cesarean delivery; digital exam contraindicated), interstitial lung disease (progressive dyspnea, dry cough, bilateral interstitial infiltrates on CXR - high-resolution CT chest for evaluation), HIV patient with fever and headache (meningitis - lumbar puncture indicated), and infectious mononucleosis (splenomegaly - avoid contact sports for 4-6 weeks to prevent splenic rupture). Perfect for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students preparing for midterm exams, clinical rotations, and AANP or ANCC board certification.
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NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm – Family Nurse
Practitioner 2026 Updated Nursing Questions
| UTA Prep | Answers & Rationales
1. A 55-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes presents with a blood
pressure of 150/92 mmHg. He is on lisinopril 20 mg daily. Home BP readings
average 145/88 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily
B. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily
C. Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
D. Add metoprolol 25 mg daily
Answer: B
Rationale: First-line add-on to an ACE inhibitor for hypertension is a calcium
channel blocker (amlodipine) or a thiazide diuretic. CCB is often preferred.
2. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance,
and constipation. TSH is 12.5 mIU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0). What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Methimazole 10 mg daily
B. Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism treatment starts with low-dose levothyroxine
(25–50 mcg) in older adults or those with cardiac history, then titrated.
Methimazole is for hyperthyroidism.
,3. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has a BP of 145/90 mmHg and a
urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 80 mg/g. Which antihypertensive is
preferred?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) are preferred in diabetics with
albuminuria for renal protection. They slow the progression of diabetic
nephropathy.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with
headache, blurred vision, and a BP of 160/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows
3+ protein. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Prescribe labetalol and send home
B. Admit for magnesium sulfate and fetal monitoring
C. Prescribe methyldopa and follow up in 1 week
D. Recommend bed rest at home
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria) requires
hospital admission for magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis and fetal
monitoring.
5. A 55-year-old male presents with acute-onset tearing chest pain radiating
to the back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 140/80 mmHg in the
left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
,C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the
back and asymmetric blood pressures between arms. Requires immediate
imaging (CT angiography).
6. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take with food to prevent nausea
B. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and remain upright
for 30 minutes
C. Take at bedtime with a small snack
D. Take with calcium supplements for better absorption
Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate (bisphosphonate) must be taken on an empty
stomach with a full glass of water, and the patient must remain upright for
30 minutes to prevent esophagitis.
7. A 25-year-old male presents with knee swelling after a twisting injury. The
Lachman test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
D. Patellar dislocation
Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for an ACL
tear. The McMurray test is for meniscus tears.
, 8. A 65-year-old male with COPD has an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 and an FEV1
of 45% of predicted. According to GOLD guidelines, what is the severity
classification?
A. GOLD 1 (Mild)
B. GOLD 2 (Moderate)
C. GOLD 3 (Severe)
D. GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
Answer: C
Rationale: GOLD classification: FEV1 ≥80% = GOLD 1; 50–79% = GOLD 2;
30–49% = GOLD 3; <30% = GOLD 4.
9. A 48-year-old female presents with episodic palpitations, sweating,
headache, and hypertension. Which test is most helpful in diagnosis?
A. Thyroid function tests
B. 24-hour urinary metanephrines
C. Serum cortisol
D. ECG
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms suggest pheochromocytoma. 24-hour urinary
metanephrines and fractionated catecholamines are the best screening tests.
10. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, cough, and inspiratory stridor that
worsens at night. The child is sitting upright with drooling. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Oral antibiotics and discharge
B. Nebulized epinephrine and observation
C. Immediate airway assessment in a controlled setting (OR)
D. Chest X-ray
Answer: C
Rationale: Stridor + drooling + sitting upright suggest epiglottitis (now rare