NCLEX PN ACTUAL EXAM | Complete Questions & Verified
Answers with Rationales | Practical Nursing Test Bank | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Fundamentals of Practical Nursing & Safe Care Delivery (Q1–Q35)
Q1: You're caring for a client who was just admitted with a suspected fractured right hip
after a fall at home. The client is alert and oriented, but reports pain rated 8/10. Which
action should the LPN take first?
A. Apply a cold pack to the right hip to reduce swelling.
B. Assess the client's neurovascular status in the right leg.
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic as ordered. [CORRECT]
D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void before immobilization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. On the NCLEX, we always prioritize pain relief for
an alert, oriented client reporting severe pain. This client is stable enough to receive
analgesia, and managing that 8/10 pain is your immediate priority before you do
anything else. Think of it this way — you can't effectively assess or position a client
who's in that much discomfort.
Q2: The LPN is reviewing the care plan for a client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the
sacrum. Which intervention is most appropriate for the LPN to implement?
,A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to keep the wound moist.
B. Perform sharp debridement of necrotic tissue at the bedside.
C. Massage the area around the wound to promote circulation.
D. Position the client on their back with a donut cushion under the sacrum. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best answer here is D. For a stage 2 pressure injury, the key is offloading
pressure from the sacrum — a donut cushion helps redistribute weight and keeps
pressure off that fragile tissue. What you want to remember is that massage can
actually damage underlying tissue, and sharp debridement is outside LPN scope and
not indicated for a clean stage 2 wound anyway.
Q3: Which of the following vital sign findings should the LPN report to the RN
immediately?
A. Blood pressure 128/78 mmHg in a 45-year-old client.
B. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min with shallow breathing and use of accessory
muscles. [CORRECT]
C. Heart rate 88 beats/min, regular rhythm.
D. Oral temperature 99.2°F in a postoperative client on day 2.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer here is B. This is correct because on the NCLEX, we always
prioritize the ABCs — airway and breathing come first. A respiratory rate of 24 with
shallow breathing and accessory muscle use tells you this client is working hard to
,breathe and could be heading toward respiratory failure. That needs immediate
attention.
Q4: The LPN is caring for a client with a new colostomy. The client asks, "Will I ever be
able to swim again?" Which response by the LPN demonstrates therapeutic
communication?
A. "Of course you will — lots of people with colostomies swim all the time."
B. "Why are you worried about swimming when you just had major surgery?"
C. "Tell me more about what's concerning you about swimming with your colostomy."
[CORRECT]
D. "You should probably avoid swimming to prevent infection."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. This aligns with standard nursing practice
because therapeutic communication means exploring the client's feelings and concerns
rather than giving false reassurance, dismissing their worry, or shutting them down with
a directive. What you want to remember is that "tell me more" opens the door for the
client to express themselves.
Q5: A client is admitted with tuberculosis (TB) and is placed on airborne precautions.
Which PPE should the LPN wear when entering the room?
A. Gown and gloves only.
B. Surgical mask and face shield.
C. N95 respirator mask. [CORRECT]
, D. Standard precautions — no additional PPE needed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. TB is spread through airborne droplet nuclei, so an
N95 respirator is required — a regular surgical mask won't filter those tiny particles. This
is one of those infection control questions the NCLEX loves to test, so think of it this
way: airborne diseases (TB, measles, chickenpox) always mean N95.
Q6: The LPN is reviewing a client's medication administration record (MAR). The client
has a history of heart failure and is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is having the desired effect?
A. Weight gain of 2 pounds over 24 hours.
B. Decreased ankle edema and improved lung sounds. [CORRECT]
C. Increased blood pressure from 110/70 to 140/90 mmHg.
D. Report of increased thirst and dry mouth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer here is B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic — it's supposed to
pull fluid off, so you'd expect to see less ankle edema and clearer lung sounds as the
fluid leaves the tissues. What you want to remember is that weight gain and rising blood
pressure would actually suggest the medication isn't working or the heart failure is
worsening.
Q7: Which task is appropriate for the LPN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP)?
Answers with Rationales | Practical Nursing Test Bank | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Fundamentals of Practical Nursing & Safe Care Delivery (Q1–Q35)
Q1: You're caring for a client who was just admitted with a suspected fractured right hip
after a fall at home. The client is alert and oriented, but reports pain rated 8/10. Which
action should the LPN take first?
A. Apply a cold pack to the right hip to reduce swelling.
B. Assess the client's neurovascular status in the right leg.
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic as ordered. [CORRECT]
D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void before immobilization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. On the NCLEX, we always prioritize pain relief for
an alert, oriented client reporting severe pain. This client is stable enough to receive
analgesia, and managing that 8/10 pain is your immediate priority before you do
anything else. Think of it this way — you can't effectively assess or position a client
who's in that much discomfort.
Q2: The LPN is reviewing the care plan for a client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the
sacrum. Which intervention is most appropriate for the LPN to implement?
,A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to keep the wound moist.
B. Perform sharp debridement of necrotic tissue at the bedside.
C. Massage the area around the wound to promote circulation.
D. Position the client on their back with a donut cushion under the sacrum. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best answer here is D. For a stage 2 pressure injury, the key is offloading
pressure from the sacrum — a donut cushion helps redistribute weight and keeps
pressure off that fragile tissue. What you want to remember is that massage can
actually damage underlying tissue, and sharp debridement is outside LPN scope and
not indicated for a clean stage 2 wound anyway.
Q3: Which of the following vital sign findings should the LPN report to the RN
immediately?
A. Blood pressure 128/78 mmHg in a 45-year-old client.
B. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min with shallow breathing and use of accessory
muscles. [CORRECT]
C. Heart rate 88 beats/min, regular rhythm.
D. Oral temperature 99.2°F in a postoperative client on day 2.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer here is B. This is correct because on the NCLEX, we always
prioritize the ABCs — airway and breathing come first. A respiratory rate of 24 with
shallow breathing and accessory muscle use tells you this client is working hard to
,breathe and could be heading toward respiratory failure. That needs immediate
attention.
Q4: The LPN is caring for a client with a new colostomy. The client asks, "Will I ever be
able to swim again?" Which response by the LPN demonstrates therapeutic
communication?
A. "Of course you will — lots of people with colostomies swim all the time."
B. "Why are you worried about swimming when you just had major surgery?"
C. "Tell me more about what's concerning you about swimming with your colostomy."
[CORRECT]
D. "You should probably avoid swimming to prevent infection."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. This aligns with standard nursing practice
because therapeutic communication means exploring the client's feelings and concerns
rather than giving false reassurance, dismissing their worry, or shutting them down with
a directive. What you want to remember is that "tell me more" opens the door for the
client to express themselves.
Q5: A client is admitted with tuberculosis (TB) and is placed on airborne precautions.
Which PPE should the LPN wear when entering the room?
A. Gown and gloves only.
B. Surgical mask and face shield.
C. N95 respirator mask. [CORRECT]
, D. Standard precautions — no additional PPE needed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer here is C. TB is spread through airborne droplet nuclei, so an
N95 respirator is required — a regular surgical mask won't filter those tiny particles. This
is one of those infection control questions the NCLEX loves to test, so think of it this
way: airborne diseases (TB, measles, chickenpox) always mean N95.
Q6: The LPN is reviewing a client's medication administration record (MAR). The client
has a history of heart failure and is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is having the desired effect?
A. Weight gain of 2 pounds over 24 hours.
B. Decreased ankle edema and improved lung sounds. [CORRECT]
C. Increased blood pressure from 110/70 to 140/90 mmHg.
D. Report of increased thirst and dry mouth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer here is B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic — it's supposed to
pull fluid off, so you'd expect to see less ankle edema and clearer lung sounds as the
fluid leaves the tissues. What you want to remember is that weight gain and rising blood
pressure would actually suggest the medication isn't working or the heart failure is
worsening.
Q7: Which task is appropriate for the LPN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP)?
