NGN ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM-
STYLE PRACTICE TESTOriginal Content – 150
Questions with Answers & Rationales
Designed for 2026/2027 NCLEX/ATI
Preparation
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS & SAFETY (Questions 1–30)
Question 1
A nurse is inserting a urinary catheter. After cleansing the meatus, the catheter touches the client's
thigh. What should the nurse do?
A) Wipe the catheter with an alcohol swab and continue
B) Continue insertion since the thigh is clean
C) Obtain a new sterile catheter and restart
D) Apply antiseptic to the catheter tip
Correct Answer: C) Obtain a new sterile catheter and restart
Rationale for C: Once sterility is broken, the catheter is contaminated and must be replaced to prevent
CAUTI.
Rationale for A: Alcohol swabbing does not reliably sterilize a catheter.
Rationale for B: The thigh is not sterile; continuing increases infection risk.
Rationale for D: Antiseptic on the tip does not eliminate all contamination.
Question 2
A client on contact precautions for C. diff asks to go to the hospital chapel. What is the nurse's best
response?
A) "Let me get a wheelchair to take you there."
B) "You may go if you wear a mask and gloves."
,C) "I will arrange a chaplain to visit you in your room."
D) "You can go after you wash your hands."
Correct Answer: C) "I will arrange a chaplain to visit you in your room."
Rationale for C: Clients on contact precautions should not leave the room to prevent spread of C. diff
spores.
Rationale for A: Transporting spreads spores.
Rationale for B: Mask is unnecessary for C. diff; gloves alone are insufficient to prevent environmental
contamination.
Rationale for D: Handwashing alone does not justify leaving isolation.
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client’s IV site. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Slight edema around the site
B) Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C) Purulent drainage at insertion site
D) Client reports mild discomfort
Correct Answer: C) Purulent drainage at insertion site
Rationale for C: Purulent drainage indicates infection; IV should be discontinued and culture obtained.
Rationale for A: Slight edema may be early infiltration but not immediately critical.
Rationale for B: Normal temperature.
Rationale for D: Mild discomfort is common; severe pain is more concerning.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a heparin injection. Which site is most appropriate?
A) Deltoid
B) Ventrogluteal
C) Abdomen (2 inches from umbilicus)
D) Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: C) Abdomen (2 inches from umbilicus)
Rationale for C: Abdomen has consistent subcutaneous tissue and is standard for subcutaneous heparin.
Rationale for A: Deltoid has thin tissue; risk of bleeding or intramuscular injection.
Rationale for B: Ventrogluteal is for IM injections.
Rationale for D: Vastus lateralis is IM site.
Question 5
A client is on aspiration precautions. Which finding indicates the need for suctioning?
,A) Wet, gurgling respirations
B) Oxygen saturation 95%
C) Coughing during meals
D) Clear breath sounds
Correct Answer: A) Wet, gurgling respirations
Rationale for A: Gurgling indicates secretions in upper airway, risk of aspiration.
Rationale for B: Normal SpO2 does not rule out aspiration risk.
Rationale for C: Coughing may be protective, not necessarily immediate suction need.
Rationale for D: Clear breath sounds are normal.
Question 6
A nurse finds a client on the floor next to the bed. What is the first action?
A) Call the provider
B) Check the client for injuries
C) Assist the client back to bed
D) Complete an incident report
Correct Answer: B) Check the client for injuries
Rationale for B: ABCs and injury assessment come first.
Rationale for A: Provider is notified after assessment.
Rationale for C: Moving before assessment may worsen injury.
Rationale for D: Incident report is completed later.
Question 7
A client with a history of falls has a bed alarm. The alarm sounds. The nurse should first:
A) Enter the room and assess the client
B) Turn off the alarm
C) Call for assistance
D) Document the fall
Correct Answer: A) Enter the room and assess the client
Rationale for A: Immediate assessment ensures client safety.
Rationale for B: Turning off alarm before assessment is unsafe.
Rationale for C: Call for help only if needed after assessment.
Rationale for D: Documentation comes after care.
Question 8
A nurse is providing hand hygiene education. Which statement indicates understanding?
, A) "I can use hand sanitizer if my hands are visibly soiled."
B) "I should wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water."
C) "Hot water kills more germs than warm water."
D) "Hand sanitizer works on C. diff spores."
Correct Answer: B) "I should wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water."
Rationale for B: CDC recommends 20 seconds for effective handwashing.
Rationale for A: Sanitizer is ineffective on visible soil.
Rationale for C: Hot water damages skin without improving germ kill.
Rationale for D: Sanitizer does not kill C. diff spores.
Question 9
A client with restraints must be assessed every:
A) 15 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Correct Answer: D) 2 hours
Rationale for D: CMS requires face-to-face assessment every 2 hours for restrained adults.
Rationale for A: Too frequent; not required.
Rationale for B: Not standard.
Rationale for C: Not sufficient for CMS requirements.
Question 10
A nurse is applying wrist restraints. Which action is correct?
A) Tie restraints to the bed rail
B) Secure with a quick-release knot
C) Apply tightly to prevent movement
D) Remove restraints every 4 hours
Correct Answer: B) Secure with a quick-release knot
Rationale for B: Quick-release allows rapid removal in emergency.
Rationale for A: Tie to bed frame, not rail (rail moves).
Rationale for C: Two fingers should fit under restraint.
Rationale for D: Remove every 2 hours for ROM and skin check.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required during vital signs?
STYLE PRACTICE TESTOriginal Content – 150
Questions with Answers & Rationales
Designed for 2026/2027 NCLEX/ATI
Preparation
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS & SAFETY (Questions 1–30)
Question 1
A nurse is inserting a urinary catheter. After cleansing the meatus, the catheter touches the client's
thigh. What should the nurse do?
A) Wipe the catheter with an alcohol swab and continue
B) Continue insertion since the thigh is clean
C) Obtain a new sterile catheter and restart
D) Apply antiseptic to the catheter tip
Correct Answer: C) Obtain a new sterile catheter and restart
Rationale for C: Once sterility is broken, the catheter is contaminated and must be replaced to prevent
CAUTI.
Rationale for A: Alcohol swabbing does not reliably sterilize a catheter.
Rationale for B: The thigh is not sterile; continuing increases infection risk.
Rationale for D: Antiseptic on the tip does not eliminate all contamination.
Question 2
A client on contact precautions for C. diff asks to go to the hospital chapel. What is the nurse's best
response?
A) "Let me get a wheelchair to take you there."
B) "You may go if you wear a mask and gloves."
,C) "I will arrange a chaplain to visit you in your room."
D) "You can go after you wash your hands."
Correct Answer: C) "I will arrange a chaplain to visit you in your room."
Rationale for C: Clients on contact precautions should not leave the room to prevent spread of C. diff
spores.
Rationale for A: Transporting spreads spores.
Rationale for B: Mask is unnecessary for C. diff; gloves alone are insufficient to prevent environmental
contamination.
Rationale for D: Handwashing alone does not justify leaving isolation.
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client’s IV site. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Slight edema around the site
B) Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C) Purulent drainage at insertion site
D) Client reports mild discomfort
Correct Answer: C) Purulent drainage at insertion site
Rationale for C: Purulent drainage indicates infection; IV should be discontinued and culture obtained.
Rationale for A: Slight edema may be early infiltration but not immediately critical.
Rationale for B: Normal temperature.
Rationale for D: Mild discomfort is common; severe pain is more concerning.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to administer a heparin injection. Which site is most appropriate?
A) Deltoid
B) Ventrogluteal
C) Abdomen (2 inches from umbilicus)
D) Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: C) Abdomen (2 inches from umbilicus)
Rationale for C: Abdomen has consistent subcutaneous tissue and is standard for subcutaneous heparin.
Rationale for A: Deltoid has thin tissue; risk of bleeding or intramuscular injection.
Rationale for B: Ventrogluteal is for IM injections.
Rationale for D: Vastus lateralis is IM site.
Question 5
A client is on aspiration precautions. Which finding indicates the need for suctioning?
,A) Wet, gurgling respirations
B) Oxygen saturation 95%
C) Coughing during meals
D) Clear breath sounds
Correct Answer: A) Wet, gurgling respirations
Rationale for A: Gurgling indicates secretions in upper airway, risk of aspiration.
Rationale for B: Normal SpO2 does not rule out aspiration risk.
Rationale for C: Coughing may be protective, not necessarily immediate suction need.
Rationale for D: Clear breath sounds are normal.
Question 6
A nurse finds a client on the floor next to the bed. What is the first action?
A) Call the provider
B) Check the client for injuries
C) Assist the client back to bed
D) Complete an incident report
Correct Answer: B) Check the client for injuries
Rationale for B: ABCs and injury assessment come first.
Rationale for A: Provider is notified after assessment.
Rationale for C: Moving before assessment may worsen injury.
Rationale for D: Incident report is completed later.
Question 7
A client with a history of falls has a bed alarm. The alarm sounds. The nurse should first:
A) Enter the room and assess the client
B) Turn off the alarm
C) Call for assistance
D) Document the fall
Correct Answer: A) Enter the room and assess the client
Rationale for A: Immediate assessment ensures client safety.
Rationale for B: Turning off alarm before assessment is unsafe.
Rationale for C: Call for help only if needed after assessment.
Rationale for D: Documentation comes after care.
Question 8
A nurse is providing hand hygiene education. Which statement indicates understanding?
, A) "I can use hand sanitizer if my hands are visibly soiled."
B) "I should wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water."
C) "Hot water kills more germs than warm water."
D) "Hand sanitizer works on C. diff spores."
Correct Answer: B) "I should wash for at least 20 seconds with soap and water."
Rationale for B: CDC recommends 20 seconds for effective handwashing.
Rationale for A: Sanitizer is ineffective on visible soil.
Rationale for C: Hot water damages skin without improving germ kill.
Rationale for D: Sanitizer does not kill C. diff spores.
Question 9
A client with restraints must be assessed every:
A) 15 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Correct Answer: D) 2 hours
Rationale for D: CMS requires face-to-face assessment every 2 hours for restrained adults.
Rationale for A: Too frequent; not required.
Rationale for B: Not standard.
Rationale for C: Not sufficient for CMS requirements.
Question 10
A nurse is applying wrist restraints. Which action is correct?
A) Tie restraints to the bed rail
B) Secure with a quick-release knot
C) Apply tightly to prevent movement
D) Remove restraints every 4 hours
Correct Answer: B) Secure with a quick-release knot
Rationale for B: Quick-release allows rapid removal in emergency.
Rationale for A: Tie to bed frame, not rail (rail moves).
Rationale for C: Two fingers should fit under restraint.
Rationale for D: Remove every 2 hours for ROM and skin check.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required during vital signs?
