EMT Refresher CE Exam Practice Test Updated 2026 |
Complete Study Guide with Verified Questions and
Detailed Rationales | Airway Management, Trauma
Assessment, Cardiac and Medical Emergencies,
Pharmacology Review, Patient Assessment, EMS
Operations, IV Therapy Basics, Emergency Response
Protocols, and Prehospital Care Competency for EMT
Continuing Education Exam Success
Question 1: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action when
arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision with no apparent hazards?
A. Immediately extricate any trapped patients
B. Begin patient assessment while standing near the vehicle
C. Perform a scene size-up to ensure safety
D. Call for additional ambulances right away
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Perform a scene size-up to ensure safety
RATIONALE : Scene safety is the first priority in any emergency response. Before
approaching patients or initiating care, EMTs must assess for hazards such as traffic,
fire, downed power lines, or hazardous materials to protect themselves, their team, and
patients.
Question 2: In adult CPR, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation
ratio when two rescuers are available and the patient has an advanced airway in
place?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. Continuous compressions with ventilations every 6 seconds
D. 5:1
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Continuous compressions with ventilations every 6
seconds
RATIONALE : When an advanced airway (e.g., endotracheal tube or supraglottic device)
is in place during CPR, chest compressions should be continuous without pauses for
ventilation. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of one breath every 6 seconds (10
breaths per minute).
Question 3: A patient presents with sudden onset of severe shortness of breath,
sharp pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. Which condition should be suspected?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pneumonia
D. Asthma exacerbation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pulmonary embolism
,RATIONALE : Pulmonary embolism often presents with acute dyspnea, pleuritic chest
pain (worsens with breathing), tachycardia, and sometimes hemoptysis. It is a life-
threatening condition requiring rapid transport and hospital evaluation.
Question 4: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
aspirin in suspected acute coronary syndrome?
A. Dilates coronary arteries
B. Reduces heart rate
C. Inhibits platelet aggregation
D. Lowers blood pressure
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Inhibits platelet aggregation
RATIONALE : Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1), reducing
thromboxane A2 production and thereby preventing platelet aggregation. This helps
limit clot formation in coronary arteries during acute coronary syndromes.
Question 5: What is the primary purpose of using a non-rebreather mask in oxygen
therapy?
A. To deliver precise concentrations of oxygen
B. To provide high-flow oxygen up to 15 L/min
C. To conserve oxygen during transport
D. To humidify oxygen for patient comfort
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To provide high-flow oxygen up to 15 L/min
RATIONALE : A non-rebreather mask delivers high concentrations of oxygen (up to 90–
95%) when used with a flow rate of 10–15 L/min and a fully inflated reservoir bag,
making it ideal for critically ill or hypoxic patients.
Question 6: During triage at a mass casualty incident, which patient would receive
a red tag under the START system?
A. A patient who is unresponsive but breathing after airway repositioning
B. A patient walking and calling for help
C. A patient with a minor laceration and controlled bleeding
D. A patient with absent radial pulse and capillary refill >2 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: D. A patient with absent radial pulse and capillary refill >2
seconds
RATIONALE : In START triage, a red tag (immediate) is assigned to patients who are
breathing but have a respiratory rate <30, no radial pulse, or capillary refill >2 seconds—
indicating poor perfusion and need for immediate intervention.
Question 7: Which sign is most indicative of decompensated shock in an adult
trauma patient?
, A. Tachycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Hypotension
D. Cool, clammy skin
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypotension
RATIONALE : Hypotension (systolic BP <90 mmHg in adults) signifies decompensated
shock, where compensatory mechanisms (e.g., tachycardia, vasoconstriction) have
failed. Early signs like tachycardia and anxiety occur in compensated shock.
Question 8: What is the correct sequence for managing an unresponsive adult
patient found in cardiac arrest?
A. Check pulse → call for help → start compressions → attach AED
B. Ensure scene safety → check responsiveness → activate EMS → begin CPR → use AED
C. Attach AED immediately → check breathing → start compressions
D. Open airway → give 2 rescue breaths → check pulse → start compressions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ensure scene safety → check responsiveness → activate EMS
→ begin CPR → use AED
RATIONALE : The standard adult BLS sequence begins with scene safety, then checking
responsiveness. If unresponsive and not breathing normally, EMS is activated, CPR is
started immediately, and an AED is applied as soon as available.
Question 9: A patient with a known history of diabetes is confused, diaphoretic,
and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow safely
B. Give intramuscular glucagon
C. Start an IV and administer dextrose
D. Monitor and transport without intervention
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow safely
RATIONALE : For a conscious, alert, and able-to-swallow hypoglycemic patient
(glucose <70 mg/dL), oral glucose (e.g., gel, tablets, juice) is the preferred and fastest
treatment. Glucagon or IV dextrose is reserved for unconscious or seizing patients.
Question 10: Which of the following is a contraindication to administering
nitroglycerin?
A. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
B. Systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg
C. History of angina
D. Use of aspirin within the past 24 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg
Complete Study Guide with Verified Questions and
Detailed Rationales | Airway Management, Trauma
Assessment, Cardiac and Medical Emergencies,
Pharmacology Review, Patient Assessment, EMS
Operations, IV Therapy Basics, Emergency Response
Protocols, and Prehospital Care Competency for EMT
Continuing Education Exam Success
Question 1: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action when
arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision with no apparent hazards?
A. Immediately extricate any trapped patients
B. Begin patient assessment while standing near the vehicle
C. Perform a scene size-up to ensure safety
D. Call for additional ambulances right away
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Perform a scene size-up to ensure safety
RATIONALE : Scene safety is the first priority in any emergency response. Before
approaching patients or initiating care, EMTs must assess for hazards such as traffic,
fire, downed power lines, or hazardous materials to protect themselves, their team, and
patients.
Question 2: In adult CPR, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation
ratio when two rescuers are available and the patient has an advanced airway in
place?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. Continuous compressions with ventilations every 6 seconds
D. 5:1
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Continuous compressions with ventilations every 6
seconds
RATIONALE : When an advanced airway (e.g., endotracheal tube or supraglottic device)
is in place during CPR, chest compressions should be continuous without pauses for
ventilation. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of one breath every 6 seconds (10
breaths per minute).
Question 3: A patient presents with sudden onset of severe shortness of breath,
sharp pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia. Which condition should be suspected?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pneumonia
D. Asthma exacerbation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pulmonary embolism
,RATIONALE : Pulmonary embolism often presents with acute dyspnea, pleuritic chest
pain (worsens with breathing), tachycardia, and sometimes hemoptysis. It is a life-
threatening condition requiring rapid transport and hospital evaluation.
Question 4: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
aspirin in suspected acute coronary syndrome?
A. Dilates coronary arteries
B. Reduces heart rate
C. Inhibits platelet aggregation
D. Lowers blood pressure
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Inhibits platelet aggregation
RATIONALE : Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1), reducing
thromboxane A2 production and thereby preventing platelet aggregation. This helps
limit clot formation in coronary arteries during acute coronary syndromes.
Question 5: What is the primary purpose of using a non-rebreather mask in oxygen
therapy?
A. To deliver precise concentrations of oxygen
B. To provide high-flow oxygen up to 15 L/min
C. To conserve oxygen during transport
D. To humidify oxygen for patient comfort
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To provide high-flow oxygen up to 15 L/min
RATIONALE : A non-rebreather mask delivers high concentrations of oxygen (up to 90–
95%) when used with a flow rate of 10–15 L/min and a fully inflated reservoir bag,
making it ideal for critically ill or hypoxic patients.
Question 6: During triage at a mass casualty incident, which patient would receive
a red tag under the START system?
A. A patient who is unresponsive but breathing after airway repositioning
B. A patient walking and calling for help
C. A patient with a minor laceration and controlled bleeding
D. A patient with absent radial pulse and capillary refill >2 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: D. A patient with absent radial pulse and capillary refill >2
seconds
RATIONALE : In START triage, a red tag (immediate) is assigned to patients who are
breathing but have a respiratory rate <30, no radial pulse, or capillary refill >2 seconds—
indicating poor perfusion and need for immediate intervention.
Question 7: Which sign is most indicative of decompensated shock in an adult
trauma patient?
, A. Tachycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Hypotension
D. Cool, clammy skin
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypotension
RATIONALE : Hypotension (systolic BP <90 mmHg in adults) signifies decompensated
shock, where compensatory mechanisms (e.g., tachycardia, vasoconstriction) have
failed. Early signs like tachycardia and anxiety occur in compensated shock.
Question 8: What is the correct sequence for managing an unresponsive adult
patient found in cardiac arrest?
A. Check pulse → call for help → start compressions → attach AED
B. Ensure scene safety → check responsiveness → activate EMS → begin CPR → use AED
C. Attach AED immediately → check breathing → start compressions
D. Open airway → give 2 rescue breaths → check pulse → start compressions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ensure scene safety → check responsiveness → activate EMS
→ begin CPR → use AED
RATIONALE : The standard adult BLS sequence begins with scene safety, then checking
responsiveness. If unresponsive and not breathing normally, EMS is activated, CPR is
started immediately, and an AED is applied as soon as available.
Question 9: A patient with a known history of diabetes is confused, diaphoretic,
and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow safely
B. Give intramuscular glucagon
C. Start an IV and administer dextrose
D. Monitor and transport without intervention
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow safely
RATIONALE : For a conscious, alert, and able-to-swallow hypoglycemic patient
(glucose <70 mg/dL), oral glucose (e.g., gel, tablets, juice) is the preferred and fastest
treatment. Glucagon or IV dextrose is reserved for unconscious or seizing patients.
Question 10: Which of the following is a contraindication to administering
nitroglycerin?
A. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
B. Systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg
C. History of angina
D. Use of aspirin within the past 24 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Systolic blood pressure of 88 mmHg
