NUR 282 Exam 5 Study Guide: Advanced Clinical and Transition
Nursing 2026 |Galen College
1. In a mass casualty incident, a patient with a sucking chest wound would be
assigned which color triage tag?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate life-threatening injuries that are treatable, such as
airway obstruction or a sucking chest wound.
2. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark sign of the ‘progressive stage’ of
shock?
A. Narrowing pulse pressure
B. Map decrease of >20 mmHg from baseline
C. Slight increase in heart rate
D. Full compensatory mechanisms active
Answer: B
Rationale: The progressive stage is characterized by a MAP decrease of more than 20
mmHg from baseline and compensatory mechanisms failing to maintain perfusion.
,3. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned
for an adult with burns on the entire right arm and the entire chest.
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 27%
D. 45%
Answer: C
Rationale: Entire right arm is 9%, and the chest (front torso) is 18%. 9 + 18 = 27%.
4. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation. What is the primary
reason for using Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)?
A. To decrease the risk of barotrauma
B. To clear secretions from the lower airways
C. To decrease the work of breathing for the patient
D. To prevent alveolar collapse and improve oxygenation
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP keeps alveoli open at the end of expiration, increasing the surface area for
gas exchange and improving oxygenation in ARDS.
5. What is the primary goal of the ‘resuscitative phase’ of burn injury
management?
A. Maintenance of vital organ perfusion
B. Psychosocial adjustment
C. Physical therapy and ROM
D. Wound closure and infection prevention
Answer: A
Rationale: The resuscitative phase (first 24-48 hours) focuses on fluid resuscitation to
maintain organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemic shock.
, 6. Which of the following is the priority assessment for a patient admitted with
a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7?
A. Assessment of cranial nerves
B. Evaluation of distal pulses
C. Airway patency and protection
D. Checking for deep vein thrombosis
Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less generally indicates a coma and the need for airway
protection (intubation).
7. Cushing’s Triad, a late sign of increased intracranial pressure, consists of
which three symptoms?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Bradycardia, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and apnea
D. Tachycardia, hypertension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad includes bradycardia, severe hypertension (widened pulse
pressure), and irregular or labored breathing.
8. Which type of shock is characterized by a low heart rate and dry, warm skin
despite hypotension?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: B
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in loss of sympathetic tone, leading to bradycardia
and vasodilation (warm, dry skin) below the level of injury.
Nursing 2026 |Galen College
1. In a mass casualty incident, a patient with a sucking chest wound would be
assigned which color triage tag?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate life-threatening injuries that are treatable, such as
airway obstruction or a sucking chest wound.
2. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark sign of the ‘progressive stage’ of
shock?
A. Narrowing pulse pressure
B. Map decrease of >20 mmHg from baseline
C. Slight increase in heart rate
D. Full compensatory mechanisms active
Answer: B
Rationale: The progressive stage is characterized by a MAP decrease of more than 20
mmHg from baseline and compensatory mechanisms failing to maintain perfusion.
,3. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned
for an adult with burns on the entire right arm and the entire chest.
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 27%
D. 45%
Answer: C
Rationale: Entire right arm is 9%, and the chest (front torso) is 18%. 9 + 18 = 27%.
4. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation. What is the primary
reason for using Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)?
A. To decrease the risk of barotrauma
B. To clear secretions from the lower airways
C. To decrease the work of breathing for the patient
D. To prevent alveolar collapse and improve oxygenation
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP keeps alveoli open at the end of expiration, increasing the surface area for
gas exchange and improving oxygenation in ARDS.
5. What is the primary goal of the ‘resuscitative phase’ of burn injury
management?
A. Maintenance of vital organ perfusion
B. Psychosocial adjustment
C. Physical therapy and ROM
D. Wound closure and infection prevention
Answer: A
Rationale: The resuscitative phase (first 24-48 hours) focuses on fluid resuscitation to
maintain organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemic shock.
, 6. Which of the following is the priority assessment for a patient admitted with
a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7?
A. Assessment of cranial nerves
B. Evaluation of distal pulses
C. Airway patency and protection
D. Checking for deep vein thrombosis
Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less generally indicates a coma and the need for airway
protection (intubation).
7. Cushing’s Triad, a late sign of increased intracranial pressure, consists of
which three symptoms?
A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea
B. Bradycardia, hypertension with widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and apnea
D. Tachycardia, hypertension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s Triad includes bradycardia, severe hypertension (widened pulse
pressure), and irregular or labored breathing.
8. Which type of shock is characterized by a low heart rate and dry, warm skin
despite hypotension?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: B
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in loss of sympathetic tone, leading to bradycardia
and vasodilation (warm, dry skin) below the level of injury.
