NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER
RESIDENCY
PRACTICE EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)PLUS RATIONALES
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
,1 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
NSG 5644 – Family Nurse Practitioner
Residency Practice Exam 2 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
adverse effect should you counsel the patient about most specifically?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry cough due to increased
bradykinin; monitor potassium but cough is classic.
2. Which screening is recommended annually for a 65-year-old with a 30pack-
year smoking history?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Low-dose CT scan for lung cancer (if within screening criteria)
C. Mammography
D. DEXA scan
,2 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
Rationale: Annual low-dose CT is recommended for eligible heavy
smokers (typically 55–80 with ≥30 pack-years and current or quit within
15 years).
3. A patient presents with sudden, unilateral facial weakness including inability
to close the eye. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stroke of the motor cortex
B. Bell’s palsy (facial nerve palsy)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Rationale: Bell’s palsy causes peripheral facial nerve palsy with inability to
close the eye; central lesions usually spare forehead.
4. First-line medication for acute gout flare in a patient without
contraindications is:
A. Allopurinol
B. NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin)
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine for chronic prevention
Rationale: NSAIDs are first-line for acute gout flares; allopurinol is for
chronic urate lowering.
5. A 30-year-old woman requests contraception and prefers non-daily
methods. Which option is best for immediate efficacy and high
effectiveness?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Diaphragm
, 3 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
C. Progestin implant (e.g., etonogestrel implant)
D. Spermicides
Rationale: Implants provide long-acting reversible contraception with high
efficacy and no daily action.
6. The most appropriate management for a child with acute otitis media
and severe otalgia and fever is:
A. Watchful waiting for 48 hours
B. Start oral antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin)
C. Topical steroids
D. Antihistamines only
Rationale: In severe presentations or young children, prompt antibiotic
therapy is recommended; amoxicillin is first-line.
7. A patient presents with chest pain. Which feature makes myocardial
ischemia more likely?
A. Sharp pain reproducible by palpation
B. Pain that changes with respiration
C. Exertional chest pain relieved by rest
D. Pain localized to one rib
Rationale: Ischemic chest pain is classically exertional and relieved by
rest; reproducible pain suggests musculoskeletal causes.
8. For type 2 diabetes, which A1c target is reasonable for most
nonpregnant adults?
A. <5.7%
B. <6.0%
RESIDENCY
PRACTICE EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)PLUS RATIONALES
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
,1 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
NSG 5644 – Family Nurse Practitioner
Residency Practice Exam 2 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
adverse effect should you counsel the patient about most specifically?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Cough
D. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry cough due to increased
bradykinin; monitor potassium but cough is classic.
2. Which screening is recommended annually for a 65-year-old with a 30pack-
year smoking history?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Low-dose CT scan for lung cancer (if within screening criteria)
C. Mammography
D. DEXA scan
,2 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
Rationale: Annual low-dose CT is recommended for eligible heavy
smokers (typically 55–80 with ≥30 pack-years and current or quit within
15 years).
3. A patient presents with sudden, unilateral facial weakness including inability
to close the eye. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stroke of the motor cortex
B. Bell’s palsy (facial nerve palsy)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Rationale: Bell’s palsy causes peripheral facial nerve palsy with inability to
close the eye; central lesions usually spare forehead.
4. First-line medication for acute gout flare in a patient without
contraindications is:
A. Allopurinol
B. NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin)
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine for chronic prevention
Rationale: NSAIDs are first-line for acute gout flares; allopurinol is for
chronic urate lowering.
5. A 30-year-old woman requests contraception and prefers non-daily
methods. Which option is best for immediate efficacy and high
effectiveness?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Diaphragm
, 3 NSG 5644 – FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER RESIDENCY
C. Progestin implant (e.g., etonogestrel implant)
D. Spermicides
Rationale: Implants provide long-acting reversible contraception with high
efficacy and no daily action.
6. The most appropriate management for a child with acute otitis media
and severe otalgia and fever is:
A. Watchful waiting for 48 hours
B. Start oral antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin)
C. Topical steroids
D. Antihistamines only
Rationale: In severe presentations or young children, prompt antibiotic
therapy is recommended; amoxicillin is first-line.
7. A patient presents with chest pain. Which feature makes myocardial
ischemia more likely?
A. Sharp pain reproducible by palpation
B. Pain that changes with respiration
C. Exertional chest pain relieved by rest
D. Pain localized to one rib
Rationale: Ischemic chest pain is classically exertional and relieved by
rest; reproducible pain suggests musculoskeletal causes.
8. For type 2 diabetes, which A1c target is reasonable for most
nonpregnant adults?
A. <5.7%
B. <6.0%
