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ITLS Advanced Exam 2026 | 200 Practice Questions, Verified Answers & Rationales | Pass Your ITLS Provider Certification First Try

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Stop guessing what’s on the ITLS Advanced exam – master the actual test with the most up-to-date practice guide available! You’ve taken the course. Now it’s time to lock in your knowledge and walk into your International Trauma Life Support (ITLS) Advanced Provider certification exam with total confidence. This comprehensive PDF study guide gives you 200 of the most frequently tested questions – plus verified answers and detailed rationales that explain the why behind every answer. Why waste time on generic or outdated practice tests? This guide mirrors the real ITLS Advanced exam structure and covers every major topic you’ll face: Airway Management (Q1-40) – Jaw thrust vs. head-tilt, RSI (succinylcholine/rocuronium), surgical cricothyrotomy, nasopharyngeal airway contraindications (basilar skull fracture), waveform capnography (gold standard for ET tube placement), bag-valve-mask ventilation, and difficult airway algorithms. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) (Q41-80) – GCS assessment (≤8 = intubate), Cushing’s triad (hypertension + bradycardia + irregular respirations), herniation signs (fixed/dilated pupil), intracranial pressure management (mannitol, hypertonic saline), permissive vs. aggressive fluid resuscitation, and secondary brain injury prevention (MAP 90, SpO2 90%). Chest Trauma (Q81-120) – Tension pneumothorax (tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds, distended neck veins), needle decompression (2nd ICS midclavicular OR 4th-5th ICS anterior axillary line), flail chest (paradoxical movement), pulmonary contusion, massive hemothorax, cardiac tamponade (Beck’s triad), and open pneumothorax (three-sided occlusive dressing).

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Page 1 of 82



ITLS Advanced 100 Exam Questions |

Airway, TBI, Chest Trauma, Shock | 9th

Edition 2026/2027 | Paramedic & EMS

1. A 45-year-old patient is found unresponsive after a motor

vehicle collision. He has facial trauma and copious blood in

the oropharynx. What is the priority airway maneuver?

Answer: Suction the oropharynx and consider a definitive

airway (e.g., endotracheal intubation or supraglottic device).

Rationale: The priority is to clear the airway of blood and debris.

Suctioning must be performed immediately. If the patient cannot

protect his airway or ventilation is inadequate, a definitive

airway is indicated.

2. A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury requires

airway management. Which technique is most appropriate?

Answer: Jaw thrust without head extension, with manual in-line

,Page 2 of 82


stabilization.

Rationale: The jaw thrust is the preferred initial maneuver for an

unresponsive patient with suspected spinal injury because it

opens the airway without moving the cervical spine. Head tilt-chin

lift is contraindicated.

3. A 30-year-old patient has a GCS of 8 after a fall. He is

breathing at 8 breaths per minute with shallow effort. What is

the most appropriate intervention?

Answer: Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and

prepare for advanced airway placement.

Rationale: A GCS ≤ 8 often indicates inability to protect the

airway. The patient is bradypneic with shallow breathing,

indicating respiratory failure. Assisted ventilation is required, and

advanced airway management (e.g., endotracheal intubation)

should be performed.

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4. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of

proper endotracheal tube placement?

Answer: Continuous waveform capnography showing a stable

end-tidal CO₂ trace.

Rationale: Waveform capnography is the gold standard for

confirming ET tube placement in the trachea. It provides

immediate feedback and is superior to auscultation and

colorimetric devices.

5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury has a decreasing

level of consciousness and is actively vomiting. What airway

intervention is indicated?

Answer: Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) with cricoid pressure (if

no contraindication) to protect the airway from aspiration.

Rationale: The patient is at high risk for aspiration. Definitive

airway control via intubation is needed. RSI facilitates intubation

while preventing aspiration.

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6. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of a

nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?

Answer: Suspected basilar skull fracture (e.g., raccoon eyes,

Battle’s sign, CSF otorrhea/rhinorrhea).

Rationale: Inserting an NPA in the presence of a basilar skull

fracture risks intracranial placement. An oropharyngeal airway

(OPA) is preferred if the patient is unresponsive.

7. A patient has a stoma and is breathing spontaneously.

Which device is most appropriate for assisted ventilation?

Answer: A pediatric mask placed directly over the stoma, or a

supraglottic device designed for stomas.

Rationale: A standard BVM mask can be placed over the stoma.

If the patient has a tracheostomy tube, a BVM can be attached

directly to the tube.

8. During orotracheal intubation, the stylet should be

removed:

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