NR511 / Nursing Exams (Chamberlain University) FINAL
EXAM 2026 Questions And Correct Answers With Verified
Explanations| Already Grade A+.
1. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient with suspected heart failure.
Which finding is most indicative of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pulmonary crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the
lungs, a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema, JVD, and
hepatomegaly are more associated with right-sided heart failure.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a
patient presenting with suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer test
C. Echocardiogram
D. Arterial blood gas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A D-dimer test is highly sensitive and used to rule out
pulmonary embolism in low-risk patients. Other tests are less specific for
initial screening.
3. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 9%. What is the most
appropriate next step in management?
A. Continue current therapy
B. Initiate insulin therapy
C. Reduce carbohydrate intake only
D. Discontinue oral medications
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An A1C of 9% indicates poor glycemic control, often
requiring insulin initiation. Lifestyle changes alone are insufficient at this
level.
,4. Which condition is characterized by decreased TSH and elevated T3 and
T4 levels?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Euthyroid sick syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism presents with low TSH due to negative
feedback and elevated thyroid hormones (T3 and T4).
5. A patient presents with sudden unilateral weakness and slurred speech.
What is the priority action?
A. Administer aspirin
B. Obtain CT scan of the head
C. Check blood glucose
D. Begin physical therapy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A CT scan is critical to differentiate ischemic vs
hemorrhagic stroke before treatment. Immediate imaging guides
management decisions.
6. Which antihypertensive medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Lisinopril
D. Nifedipine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are teratogenic and
contraindicated in pregnancy. Others listed are safer alternatives.
7. A patient complains of burning epigastric pain relieved by eating. This is
most consistent with:
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. GERD
D. Pancreatitis
, Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Duodenal ulcer pain improves with food intake, unlike
gastric ulcers which worsen.
8. Which laboratory value is most concerning in a patient taking warfarin?
A. INR of 2.5
B. INR of 3.0
C. INR of 4.5
D. INR of 2.0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An INR of 4.5 indicates increased bleeding risk and may
require dose adjustment or reversal.
9. A patient with COPD is experiencing worsening dyspnea. Which
medication is first-line for acute relief?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Long-acting beta agonists
C. Short-acting beta agonists
D. Leukotriene inhibitors
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) provide rapid
bronchodilation for acute symptom relief.
10.Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop
diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia.
11.A patient presents with fever, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine
, B. Meningitis
C. Encephalopathy
D. Sinusitis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The triad of fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia is classic
for meningitis.
12.Which medication is first-line for treating acute bacterial sinusitis?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Doxycycline
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the recommended first-line
therapy due to its coverage of common pathogens.
13.A patient with anemia has a low MCV. What type of anemia is this?
A. Macrocytic
B. Normocytic
C. Microcytic
D. Hemolytic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) indicates microcytic
anemia, commonly due to iron deficiency.
14.Which finding is most indicative of appendicitis?
A. Left lower quadrant pain
B. Right lower quadrant pain
C. Epigastric pain
D. Diffuse abdominal pain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic sign of appendicitis.
15.A patient with asthma should avoid which medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
EXAM 2026 Questions And Correct Answers With Verified
Explanations| Already Grade A+.
1. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient with suspected heart failure.
Which finding is most indicative of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pulmonary crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the
lungs, a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema, JVD, and
hepatomegaly are more associated with right-sided heart failure.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a
patient presenting with suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer test
C. Echocardiogram
D. Arterial blood gas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A D-dimer test is highly sensitive and used to rule out
pulmonary embolism in low-risk patients. Other tests are less specific for
initial screening.
3. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 9%. What is the most
appropriate next step in management?
A. Continue current therapy
B. Initiate insulin therapy
C. Reduce carbohydrate intake only
D. Discontinue oral medications
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An A1C of 9% indicates poor glycemic control, often
requiring insulin initiation. Lifestyle changes alone are insufficient at this
level.
,4. Which condition is characterized by decreased TSH and elevated T3 and
T4 levels?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Euthyroid sick syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism presents with low TSH due to negative
feedback and elevated thyroid hormones (T3 and T4).
5. A patient presents with sudden unilateral weakness and slurred speech.
What is the priority action?
A. Administer aspirin
B. Obtain CT scan of the head
C. Check blood glucose
D. Begin physical therapy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A CT scan is critical to differentiate ischemic vs
hemorrhagic stroke before treatment. Immediate imaging guides
management decisions.
6. Which antihypertensive medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa
C. Lisinopril
D. Nifedipine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are teratogenic and
contraindicated in pregnancy. Others listed are safer alternatives.
7. A patient complains of burning epigastric pain relieved by eating. This is
most consistent with:
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. GERD
D. Pancreatitis
, Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Duodenal ulcer pain improves with food intake, unlike
gastric ulcers which worsen.
8. Which laboratory value is most concerning in a patient taking warfarin?
A. INR of 2.5
B. INR of 3.0
C. INR of 4.5
D. INR of 2.0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An INR of 4.5 indicates increased bleeding risk and may
require dose adjustment or reversal.
9. A patient with COPD is experiencing worsening dyspnea. Which
medication is first-line for acute relief?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Long-acting beta agonists
C. Short-acting beta agonists
D. Leukotriene inhibitors
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) provide rapid
bronchodilation for acute symptom relief.
10.Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop
diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia.
11.A patient presents with fever, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine
, B. Meningitis
C. Encephalopathy
D. Sinusitis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The triad of fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia is classic
for meningitis.
12.Which medication is first-line for treating acute bacterial sinusitis?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Doxycycline
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the recommended first-line
therapy due to its coverage of common pathogens.
13.A patient with anemia has a low MCV. What type of anemia is this?
A. Macrocytic
B. Normocytic
C. Microcytic
D. Hemolytic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) indicates microcytic
anemia, commonly due to iron deficiency.
14.Which finding is most indicative of appendicitis?
A. Left lower quadrant pain
B. Right lower quadrant pain
C. Epigastric pain
D. Diffuse abdominal pain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic sign of appendicitis.
15.A patient with asthma should avoid which medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
