PEAT Exam 3 Questions and Guide Answers
100% Verified Graded A+
1. 1. During pregnancy, which of the following exercises is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Curl-ups
B. Bridging
C. Double leg lifts
D. Deep breathing with forced expiration
Answer: C.
During pregnancy and postpartum, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the lower back as the legs
are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscles and cause damage to spinal
joints.
2. 1. A target heart rate is determined for individuals entering a training pro-
gram in order to:
,A. regulate exercise intensity.
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure at a specific heart rate.
D. ensure that participants exercise at maximal capacity.
Answer: A.
Exercise intensity can be expressed as oxygen uptake during activity. Heart rate and oxygen uptake have a relatively
linear relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target heart rate will ensure that the appropriate exercise intensity is being
achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of oxygen consumption that is then calculated
into calories metabolized during the activity. Blood pressure cannot be controlled at specific heart rates. Exercising at
maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is unsafe for the majority of patient populations.
3. 1. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate
physical therapy goal is:
A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best method of mobil-
ity
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone.
C. inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement and
,postural reactions
D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength.
Answer: A.
Goals of PT intervention for a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are to retard the development of contracture
and muscle weakness, which could lead to functional limitations, and thus, disability. The physical therapist would also
play a role in determining the appropriate use of assistive devices that could help maintain the child's mobility such as
wheelchairs, walkers and orthoses. Muscle tone changes and declines in strength cannot be prevented since they are
results of the disease process.
4. 1. Outcomes of a prenatal exercise program would NOT include
A. improved body mechanics.
B. application of relaxation techniques.
C. improved ligamentous flexibility.
D. strengthened pelvic-floor musculature
Answer: C
During pregnancy, the ligaments soften due to hormonal influences, and allow some degree of separation between the
joint surfaces. Additional stretching of the ligaments could result in joint instability or injury, and would not be a goal
, of treatment. The remaining options are all appropriate interventions.
5. 1. A patient has limited ankle dorsiflexion following open reduction and
internal fixation of the distal tibia. Radiographs reveal that the fracture is well
healed. Treatment with passive mobilization should include:
A. posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
B. lateral glide of the calcaneus on the tibia.
C. posterior glide of the tibia on the talus.
D. anterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
Answer: A
The trochlea of the talus is convex. Therefore, during dorsiflexion of the ankle, the talus moves posteriorly relative to the
tibia. To facilitate the movement of dorsiflexion one would need to perform a posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
6. 1. A patient who has recently and successfully completed a 12-week program
of Phase III cardiac rehabilitation will MOST likely demonstrate a decrease in:
A. carbon dioxide elimination in maximal work
B. cardiac output in maximal work.
100% Verified Graded A+
1. 1. During pregnancy, which of the following exercises is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Curl-ups
B. Bridging
C. Double leg lifts
D. Deep breathing with forced expiration
Answer: C.
During pregnancy and postpartum, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the lower back as the legs
are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscles and cause damage to spinal
joints.
2. 1. A target heart rate is determined for individuals entering a training pro-
gram in order to:
,A. regulate exercise intensity.
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure at a specific heart rate.
D. ensure that participants exercise at maximal capacity.
Answer: A.
Exercise intensity can be expressed as oxygen uptake during activity. Heart rate and oxygen uptake have a relatively
linear relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target heart rate will ensure that the appropriate exercise intensity is being
achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of oxygen consumption that is then calculated
into calories metabolized during the activity. Blood pressure cannot be controlled at specific heart rates. Exercising at
maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is unsafe for the majority of patient populations.
3. 1. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate
physical therapy goal is:
A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best method of mobil-
ity
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone.
C. inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement and
,postural reactions
D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength.
Answer: A.
Goals of PT intervention for a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are to retard the development of contracture
and muscle weakness, which could lead to functional limitations, and thus, disability. The physical therapist would also
play a role in determining the appropriate use of assistive devices that could help maintain the child's mobility such as
wheelchairs, walkers and orthoses. Muscle tone changes and declines in strength cannot be prevented since they are
results of the disease process.
4. 1. Outcomes of a prenatal exercise program would NOT include
A. improved body mechanics.
B. application of relaxation techniques.
C. improved ligamentous flexibility.
D. strengthened pelvic-floor musculature
Answer: C
During pregnancy, the ligaments soften due to hormonal influences, and allow some degree of separation between the
joint surfaces. Additional stretching of the ligaments could result in joint instability or injury, and would not be a goal
, of treatment. The remaining options are all appropriate interventions.
5. 1. A patient has limited ankle dorsiflexion following open reduction and
internal fixation of the distal tibia. Radiographs reveal that the fracture is well
healed. Treatment with passive mobilization should include:
A. posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
B. lateral glide of the calcaneus on the tibia.
C. posterior glide of the tibia on the talus.
D. anterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
Answer: A
The trochlea of the talus is convex. Therefore, during dorsiflexion of the ankle, the talus moves posteriorly relative to the
tibia. To facilitate the movement of dorsiflexion one would need to perform a posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
6. 1. A patient who has recently and successfully completed a 12-week program
of Phase III cardiac rehabilitation will MOST likely demonstrate a decrease in:
A. carbon dioxide elimination in maximal work
B. cardiac output in maximal work.
