Med-Surg: Cardiovascular
(Latest 2025-2026 Edition) 100% Verified Q&A + Answer
570+
Key Solutions
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented with the following treatment:
1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and codeine
3. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, meperidine, and thrombolytics
4. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroprusside, and morphine
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
Question 2
Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
1. Smoking cessation
2. Establishing a regular exercise routine
3. Weight reduction
4. All of the Above
Correct Answer
Answer: 4. All of the Above
Question 3
A client's cardiac monitor alarm sounds, indicating ventricular tachycardia. The nurse should:
1. perform immediate defibrillation.
2. Assess the client.
3. Call the physician.
4. Administer a precordial thump.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. Assess the client.
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,Question 4
A complication of peripheral vascular disease may be:
1. stasis ulcer.
2. Pressure ulcer.
3. Gastric ulcer.
4. Duodenal ulcer.
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. stasis ulcer.
Question 5
A key diagnostic test for heart failure is:
1. serum potassium.
2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
3. Troponin I
4. cardiac enzymes.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
Question 6
While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with mitral insufficiency, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately
after the S2. The nurse should document this extra heart sound as a:
1. S1.
2. S3.
3. S4.
4. mitral murmur.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. S3.
Rationale: An S3, is heard following an S2. This indicates that the client is experiencing heart failure and results from
increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is
heard before S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur of mitral insufficiency occurs during systole
and is heard when there's turbulent blood flow across the valve.
Question 7
A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor
to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
1. PTT
2. HCT
3. CBC
4. PT
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. PTT
Rationale: The therapeutic effectiveness of heparin is determined by monitoring the patient's PTT, PT, HCT, and CBC don't
monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin. Monitoring the PT determines warfarin's effectiveness.
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,Question 8
A client has just returned from cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate?
1. Help the client ambulate to the bathroom.
2. Restrict fluids.
3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
4. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct Answer
Answer. 3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
Rationale: After cardiac catheterization, monitor peripheral pulses to assess peripheral perfusion. Helping the client
ambulate to the bathroom is incorrect because the client should be on bed rest for 4 to 8 hours after the procedure to
reduce the risk of bleeding at the insertion site. Restricting fluids is incorrect because the client should be encouraged to
drink fluids after the procedure, unless contraindicated. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of nephrotoxicity that can
occur with the use of contrast dye. Although urine output is monitored following cardiac catheterization, the insertion of
a urinary catherter isn't necessary.
Question 9
A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which position would be most
appropriate for this client?
1. On his left-sided
2. In high Fowler's position
3. On his right side
4. In a left lateral decubitus position
Correct Answer
Answer: 3. On his right side
Rationale: Following revascularization, avoid positioning the client on the surgical side. Because this client had left
femoropoliteal revascularization, he may be positioned on the right side. Placing the client on the left side is incorrect
because this would position the client on the operative side. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position is incorrect
because the client should avoid flexion at the surgical site. Placing the client in a left lateral decubitus position is incorrect
because this would place the client on the surgical side and cause flexion at the site.
Question 10
A nurse is evaluating a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse expect to assess?
1. Ascites
2. Dyspnea
3. Hepatomegaly
4. Jugular vein distention
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. Dyspnea
Rationale: Dyspnea may occur in a client with left-sided heart failure. Ascites, hepatomegaly, and jugular vein distention
are assessment findings in right-sided heart failure.
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, Question 11
A client has developed acute pulmonary edema. Which test result should the nurse expect?
1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
2. Metabolic alkalosis by ABG analysis
3. Bradycardia by ECG
4. Decreased PAWP by hemodynamic monitoring
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
Rationale: The chest X-ray of a client with acute pulmonary edema shows interstitial edema as a result of the heart's
failure to pump adequately. Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the ABG analysis of a client in acute pulmonary
edema shows respiratory alkalosis or acidosis. Bradycardia is incorrect because the ECG would most likely indicate
tachycardia. Decreased PAWP is incorrect because PAWP rises in the client with acute pulmonary edema.
Question 12
A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with PVD. The nurse should teach the client to:
1. inspect his feet weekly
2. begin a daily walking program
3. wear constrictive clothing
4. stand rather than sit when possible
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. begin a daily walking program
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client with PVD to follow a program of walking and other leg exercises.
Inspecting the feet weekly is incorrect because the nurse should teach the client to inspect his feet daily. Wearing
constrictive clothing is incorrect because the client should wear loose clothing that doesn't restrict circulation. Standing
when possible—rather than sitting—is incorrect because the client should avoid standing for long periods.
Question 13
If a nurse knows a client's heart rate, what other value and formula does she need to know to calculate CO?
Correct Answer
Answer: Stroke Volume
Rationale: Cardiac output equals stroke volume (the amount of blood ejected with each beat) times heart rate. [CO = SV X
HR]
Question 14
A client comes to the clinic and states he has a history of hypertension. Which type of medication might the nurse expect
the client to be taking to control his blood pressure?
1. Antilipemics
2. Antibiotics
3. ACE inhibitors
4. Antidiabetics
Correct Answer
Answer: 3. ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors may be prescribed to help control high blood pressure. Other types of medications that may be
prescribed include diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II receptor blockers, and beta-adrenergic blockers.
Antilipemics help lower serum cholesterol levels. Antibiotics are used to fight infection, and antidiabetics help control
serum glucose levels.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 213
(Latest 2025-2026 Edition) 100% Verified Q&A + Answer
570+
Key Solutions
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented with the following treatment:
1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
2. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and codeine
3. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, meperidine, and thrombolytics
4. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroprusside, and morphine
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine
Question 2
Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
1. Smoking cessation
2. Establishing a regular exercise routine
3. Weight reduction
4. All of the Above
Correct Answer
Answer: 4. All of the Above
Question 3
A client's cardiac monitor alarm sounds, indicating ventricular tachycardia. The nurse should:
1. perform immediate defibrillation.
2. Assess the client.
3. Call the physician.
4. Administer a precordial thump.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. Assess the client.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 213
,Question 4
A complication of peripheral vascular disease may be:
1. stasis ulcer.
2. Pressure ulcer.
3. Gastric ulcer.
4. Duodenal ulcer.
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. stasis ulcer.
Question 5
A key diagnostic test for heart failure is:
1. serum potassium.
2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
3. Troponin I
4. cardiac enzymes.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. B-type natriuretic peptide.
Question 6
While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with mitral insufficiency, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately
after the S2. The nurse should document this extra heart sound as a:
1. S1.
2. S3.
3. S4.
4. mitral murmur.
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. S3.
Rationale: An S3, is heard following an S2. This indicates that the client is experiencing heart failure and results from
increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is
heard before S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur of mitral insufficiency occurs during systole
and is heard when there's turbulent blood flow across the valve.
Question 7
A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor
to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
1. PTT
2. HCT
3. CBC
4. PT
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. PTT
Rationale: The therapeutic effectiveness of heparin is determined by monitoring the patient's PTT, PT, HCT, and CBC don't
monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin. Monitoring the PT determines warfarin's effectiveness.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 213
,Question 8
A client has just returned from cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate?
1. Help the client ambulate to the bathroom.
2. Restrict fluids.
3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
4. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Correct Answer
Answer. 3. Monitor peripheral pulses.
Rationale: After cardiac catheterization, monitor peripheral pulses to assess peripheral perfusion. Helping the client
ambulate to the bathroom is incorrect because the client should be on bed rest for 4 to 8 hours after the procedure to
reduce the risk of bleeding at the insertion site. Restricting fluids is incorrect because the client should be encouraged to
drink fluids after the procedure, unless contraindicated. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of nephrotoxicity that can
occur with the use of contrast dye. Although urine output is monitored following cardiac catheterization, the insertion of
a urinary catherter isn't necessary.
Question 9
A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which position would be most
appropriate for this client?
1. On his left-sided
2. In high Fowler's position
3. On his right side
4. In a left lateral decubitus position
Correct Answer
Answer: 3. On his right side
Rationale: Following revascularization, avoid positioning the client on the surgical side. Because this client had left
femoropoliteal revascularization, he may be positioned on the right side. Placing the client on the left side is incorrect
because this would position the client on the operative side. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position is incorrect
because the client should avoid flexion at the surgical site. Placing the client in a left lateral decubitus position is incorrect
because this would place the client on the surgical side and cause flexion at the site.
Question 10
A nurse is evaluating a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse expect to assess?
1. Ascites
2. Dyspnea
3. Hepatomegaly
4. Jugular vein distention
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. Dyspnea
Rationale: Dyspnea may occur in a client with left-sided heart failure. Ascites, hepatomegaly, and jugular vein distention
are assessment findings in right-sided heart failure.
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, Question 11
A client has developed acute pulmonary edema. Which test result should the nurse expect?
1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
2. Metabolic alkalosis by ABG analysis
3. Bradycardia by ECG
4. Decreased PAWP by hemodynamic monitoring
Correct Answer
Answer: 1. Interstitial edema by chest X-ray
Rationale: The chest X-ray of a client with acute pulmonary edema shows interstitial edema as a result of the heart's
failure to pump adequately. Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because the ABG analysis of a client in acute pulmonary
edema shows respiratory alkalosis or acidosis. Bradycardia is incorrect because the ECG would most likely indicate
tachycardia. Decreased PAWP is incorrect because PAWP rises in the client with acute pulmonary edema.
Question 12
A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with PVD. The nurse should teach the client to:
1. inspect his feet weekly
2. begin a daily walking program
3. wear constrictive clothing
4. stand rather than sit when possible
Correct Answer
Answer: 2. begin a daily walking program
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client with PVD to follow a program of walking and other leg exercises.
Inspecting the feet weekly is incorrect because the nurse should teach the client to inspect his feet daily. Wearing
constrictive clothing is incorrect because the client should wear loose clothing that doesn't restrict circulation. Standing
when possible—rather than sitting—is incorrect because the client should avoid standing for long periods.
Question 13
If a nurse knows a client's heart rate, what other value and formula does she need to know to calculate CO?
Correct Answer
Answer: Stroke Volume
Rationale: Cardiac output equals stroke volume (the amount of blood ejected with each beat) times heart rate. [CO = SV X
HR]
Question 14
A client comes to the clinic and states he has a history of hypertension. Which type of medication might the nurse expect
the client to be taking to control his blood pressure?
1. Antilipemics
2. Antibiotics
3. ACE inhibitors
4. Antidiabetics
Correct Answer
Answer: 3. ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors may be prescribed to help control high blood pressure. Other types of medications that may be
prescribed include diuretics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II receptor blockers, and beta-adrenergic blockers.
Antilipemics help lower serum cholesterol levels. Antibiotics are used to fight infection, and antidiabetics help control
serum glucose levels.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 213