Dental Board Exam 2026: 90 Q&A + Answers

Dental Board Exam 2026/2027 – 90
Comprehensive Questions & Answers |
INBDE, NBDE & Licensure Prep

Description:
Master the 2026/2027 dental board exam with 90 high-yield questions covering
periodontics, oral pathology, pharmacology, and emergency management. Each answer
includes expert explanations aligned with current guidelines.



Download the full 2026/2027 exam paper now and pass with confidence!

, Dental Board Exam 2026: 90 Q&A + Answers
Section 1: Infective Endocarditis Prophylaxis and Pregnancy Considerations

Question 1:
A 41-year-old pregnant woman has a history of rheumatic fever, a heart murmur (without
valvular abnormality), a penicillin allergy, and a documented prior episode of infective
endocarditis. Is antibiotic prophylaxis indicated before a dental procedure that involves
gingival manipulation?

 A) Yes

 B) No

Answer: A

Explanation: According to the 2021 American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, a
history of infective endocarditis is one of the cardiac conditions associated with the highest
risk of adverse outcomes from the disease, and premedication is strongly recommended.
Pregnancy itself does not alter the need for prophylaxis when it is otherwise indicated.

Question 2:
For the patient described in Question 1, who has a penicillin allergy, which of the following is
an appropriate prophylactic antibiotic regimen?

 A) Amoxicillin 2 g orally

 B) Cephalexin 2 g orally

 C) Clarithromycin 500 mg orally

 D) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally

Answer: B

Explanation: Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin and is an acceptable alternative
for penicillin-allergic patients who do not have a history of an immediate, severe
(anaphylactic) reaction to penicillin. The 2021 AHA update no longer recommends
clindamycin as a first-line agent for prophylaxis due to its more frequent and severe adverse
reactions. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential fetal cartilage
damage. Clarithromycin is not a standard prophylactic agent for endocarditis. For patients
with a severe penicillin allergy, doxycycline is now an alternative option, but this is not listed.

,Section 2: Management of Patients on Bisphosphonates

Question 3:
A patient is currently taking oral bisphosphonates for osteoporosis. Which of the following
dental procedures can a dentist perform without consulting the patient’s physician, provided
all standard precautions are taken?

 A) Endodontic therapy (root canal)

 B) Prophylaxis and scaling

 C) Extraction

 D) Occlusal restoration (filling)

Answer: D

Explanation: Non-surgical, atraumatic procedures such as an occlusal restoration pose the
lowest risk of precipitating medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ).
Extractions carry the highest risk. Endodontic therapy can be considered lower risk, but it is
not entirely without risk, especially if it involves periapical surgery. Scaling and root planing
is generally safe, but if it involves significant subgingival manipulation, a physician
consultation may be prudent depending on the patient’s overall risk profile.

Section 3: Management of the Pregnant Patient in the Dental Setting

Question 4:
A pregnant patient expresses a severe fear of needles and becomes visibly anxious and pale
before any injection is administered. What is the most appropriate initial management to
prevent a syncopal episode?

 A) Administer oxygen

 B) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

 C) Have the patient sit up straight

 D) Reassure the patient and proceed without repositioning

Answer: B

Explanation: Placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position (head lower than feet) is a
key intervention to enhance cerebral blood flow and prevent fainting during a presyncopal

, episode. While oxygen may be required if the episode progresses, repositioning is the first-
line, non-pharmacologic measure. However, note that in late pregnancy, this position should
be modified (e.g., left lateral tilt) to avoid supine hypotensive syndrome, which is a different
condition.

Question 5:
A patient who is six months pregnant presents with bleeding gums and mobile teeth. What is
the most appropriate treatment approach?

 A) Immediate extractions of all mobile teeth

 B) Defer all treatment until after delivery

 C) Conservative debridement (scaling and root planing)

 D) Immediate endodontic therapy

Answer: C

Explanation: The clinical presentation is classic for pregnancy gingivitis or pre-existing
periodontitis exacerbated by pregnancy. Scaling and root planing (SRP) is the cornerstone of
treatment and is safe during pregnancy. Untreated periodontal disease is associated with the
release of inflammatory mediators and bacteria that can trigger uterine contractions,
increasing the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight.

Question 6:
A pregnant patient has a diastema between teeth #8 and #9 (maxillary central incisors), with
deep probing depths and Class 1 mobility on both teeth. What is the most likely explanation
for the diastema?

 A) Chronic periodontitis

 B) Distal drift of the incisors

 C) A normal physiologic finding during pregnancy

 D) An acute apical abscess

Answer: A

Explanation: The presence of deep probing depths and mobility indicates active
periodontitis. Inflammatory periodontal disease can lead to tooth migration, including the