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Exam (elaborations)

RN HESI Pharmacology V2 (2026) PDF | Actual Exams with Rationales

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RN HESI Pharmacology V2 (2026) PDF | Actual Exams with Rationales

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RN HESI Pharmacology V2 (2026) PDF | Actual
Exams with Rationales

The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years. The healthcare provider
recently changed the medication to enalapril to manage the client's blood pressure. Which
instruction should the nurse provide the client regarding the new medication?

A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair. Correct

The client's new medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which has the
side effect oforthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying
down position is important to teach the client to avoid dizziness and potentially falling.

A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire about a possible reaction
after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white
discharge. The nurse should discuss which action with the client?

Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.

Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.

Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect. Correct

Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions.

A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic therapy. If suspected, the
new onset of findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for another prescribed
treatment to treat the superinfection.

The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client begins
exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for
a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse expect?

Tachycardia.

,Increased blood pressure.

Rapid resolution of wheezing. Correct

Improved pulse oximetry values. Correct

Reduce fever airway inflammation.

Beta 2 receptor agonist agents should provide immediate return of airflow and resolve
wheezing and improve oxygenation.

A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg, displaying a sinus
bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Which action should
the nurse take?

Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.

Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client. Correct

Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.

Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.

Since the client's blood pressure is within normal limits, and the pulse is above 50 beats/min
with a first degree block, the medication can be administered. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that
slows the heart rate and lowers the blood pressure; this drug is generally held if the heart rate is
less than 50 beats/min or the client exhibits dizziness related to hypotension.

The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker
(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's
laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which
action should the nurse take first?

Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct

Check the client's apical pulse.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Repeat the serum potassium level.

, The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar because the client is hyperkalemic
(normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/l). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with diuretic therapy
in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated with several heart failure medications, including
ARBs. Because hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse should check the
apical pulse for rate and rhythm, and blood pressure.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible

Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is
prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the
prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.)

Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.

Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.

Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.

Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so albuterol, a beta2
adrenergic agonist and short acting bronchodilator, should be administered by inhalation first to
provide rapid and deep topical penetration to relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles,
and increase oxygenation. In stepwise management of persistent asthma, a long-action
bronchodilator, such as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus), with a 12-hour duration of action should
be given next. Prednisone, an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-inflammatory effects
and should be given after the client's respiratory distress begins to resolves. Gentamicin, an
antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be painful, and may require repositioning the client, so
should be last in the sequence.

An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?

Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Correct

Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.

Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.

Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.

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