HESI Exit Exam Practice
Questions with Rationales | RN
Comprehensive Review and Test
Prep Guide | Graded A+
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive Rationales
Included
,Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream
ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy
products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. Rationale: Diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion and should
What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? be avoided.
a. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to
decaffeinated coffee and tea.
b. Suggest that the client also plan to eat frequent small
meals to reduce discomfort
c. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are
rich in milk and cream.
d. Reinforce this
A male client with hypertension, who received new Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the
clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). Rationale: Stroke related to cerebral hemorrhage is major risk for uncontrolled
His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been hypertension.
taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make
him "feel bad". In explaining the need for hypertension
control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places
the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
a. Blindness secondary to cataracts
b. Ac
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
(UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a
seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankest
placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should because the use of pillows could result in suffocation and would need to be
the nurse implement? removed at the onset of the seizure. The nurse can delegate paddling the side rails
to the UAP
a. Ensure that the UAP has placed the pillows effectively to
protect the client.
b. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the
side rails instead of pillows.
c. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the
UAP completes another ta
An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been Describes life without purpose
taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which
assessment finding requires immediate follow-up Rationale: Cymbalta is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
that is known to increase the risk of suicidal thinking in adolescents and young
a. Describes life without purpose adults with major depressive disorder. B, C and D are side effects
b. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite
c. States is often fatigued and drowsy
d. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is
being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Rationale: An abdominal mass in a client with a family history for ovarian cancer
Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What should be evaluated carefully
information should the nurse include in the client's
teaching plan
a. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
b. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
c. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six
month
d. One additional negative pap smear in six
A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most
important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? Rationale: Suctioning helps to clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which
is critical.
a. Explain how to use communication tools.
b. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
c. Encourage self-care and independence.
d. Demonstrate how to clean tracheostomy site.
,In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, Document the assessment data
the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not
deflate completely during inspiration and the client's Rational: reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration and the
respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should client's respiratory rate is within normal limits.
the nurse implement
a. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
b. Remove the mask to deflate the bag
c. Increase the liter flow of oxygen
d. Document the assessment data
During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the
nurse investigate first? Rationale: The priority is the client whose alarm indicating respiratory apnea that
should be assessed first.
a. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
b. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
c. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
d. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client Check the client for lacerations or fractures
with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse
take first? Rationale: After the client falls, the nurse should immediately assess for the
possibility of injuries and provide first aid as needed
a. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice
b. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance
c. Check the client for lacerations or fractures
d. Asses clients blood sugar level
At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat Inform the anesthesia care provider
cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that
she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to Rationale: Surgical preoperative instruction includes NPO after midnight the day of
avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse surgery to decrease the risk of aspiration should vomiting occur during anesthesia.
take first? While it is possible the C-section will be done on schedule or rescheduled for later
in the day, the anesthesia provider should be notified first.
a. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
b. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
c. Inform the anesthesia care provider
d. Contact the client's obstetrician.
After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the Listen with the bell at the same location
nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if
an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds
take first such as S3 and S4. The nurse listens at the same site using the diaphragm the
diaphragm and bell before moving systematically to the next sites.
a. Side the stethoscope across the sternum.
b. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site
c. Listen with the bell at the same location
d. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor
A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a Medicare
health insurance through her place of employment. Which
agency should the client be referred to by the employee Rationale: Title XVII of the social security Act of 1965 created Medicare Program to
health nurse for health insurance needs? provide medical insurance for person more than 65 years or older, disable or with
permeant kidney failure, WIC provides supplemental nutrition to meet the needs of
a. Woman, Infant, and Children program pregnant of breastfeeding woman, infants and children up to age of 6. Medicaid
b. Medicaid provides financial assistance to pay for medical services for poor older adults, blind,
c. Medicare disable and families with dependent children. COBRA(D) health benefit provisions is
d. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act a limited insurance plan for those who has been laid off or become unemployed.
provision.
A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline Toasted wheat bread and jelly
complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the
nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline? Rationale: Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse instructs
the client to eat a snack such as toast, which contains no dairy products and may
a. Fruit-flavored yogurt. decrease GI symptoms.
b. Cheese and crackers.
c. Cold cereal with skim milk.
d. Toasted wheat bread and jelly
, Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several "I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"
complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the
client is experiencing a complication? Rationale: A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may
occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This
a. "I am having pain in my lower back when I move my complication is usually managed by bedrest, analgesic, and hydration.
legs"
b. "My throat hurts when I swallow"
c. "I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up"
d. I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"
An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which
action should the nurse implement Rationale: This elderly is experiencing symptoms of urinary tract infection. The
nurse should obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen to determine the causative
a. Auscultate for renal bruits agent so an anti-infective agent can be prescribed.
b. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
c. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketone
d. Begin to strain the client's urine.
The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with Foods sweetened with aspartame
phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping
with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are Rationale: Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because ut is
contraindicated for this child? converted to phenylalanine in the body. Additionally, milk and milk products are
contraindicated for children with PKU.
a. Wheat products
b. Foods sweetened with aspartame.
c. High fat foods
d. High calories foods.
Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration
day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a
3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for Rationale: The surgical hand scrub should last for 5 to 10 mints, so the nurse
this client. Which response should the circulating nurse should be directed to continue the vigorous scrub using a reliable agent for the total
provide? duration of 5 mints. It is not necessary to reassign staff (A). The length of the hand
scrub and subsequent scrubs during the day require the same process for the same
a. Ask a more experience nurse to perform that scrub amount of time, (B and C)
since it is the first time of the day
b. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for
surgical hand scrub
c. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes
between cases.
d. Direct the n
Which breakfast selection indicates that the client Bagel with jelly and skim milk
understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary
management of osteoporosis? Rationale: D includes dairy products which contain calcium and does not include
any foods that inhibit calcium absorption. The primary dietary implication of
a. Egg whites, toast and coffee. osteoporosis is the need for increased calcium and reduction in foods that decrease
b. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice. calcium absorption, such as caffeine and excessive fiber.
c. Granola and grapefruit juice
d. Bagel with jelly and skim milk.
The charge nurse of critical care unit informed at beginning An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur who has a
of shift that less than optimal number registered nurses be Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied
working that shift. In planning assignments, which client
should receive most care hours by a registered nurse Rationale: (D) describe the client at the most risk for injury and complications
because of the factor listed. (A) has complete the recovery period form anesthesia
a. A 34 yo admitted today after emergency but requires critical care because of the invasive lines and new abdominal incision.
appendendectomy who has peripheral intravenous (B) is likely to be in excellent physical condition and has one invasive line needed
catheter, Foley catheter. for rehydration. (C) is essentially stable, despite having a chronic condition.
b. A 48 yo marathon runner w/a central venous catheter
experiencing nausea, vomiting due to electrolyte
disturbance following a race.
c. A 63 yo chain s
Questions with Rationales | RN
Comprehensive Review and Test
Prep Guide | Graded A+
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive Rationales
Included
,Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream
ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy
products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. Rationale: Diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion and should
What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? be avoided.
a. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to
decaffeinated coffee and tea.
b. Suggest that the client also plan to eat frequent small
meals to reduce discomfort
c. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are
rich in milk and cream.
d. Reinforce this
A male client with hypertension, who received new Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the
clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). Rationale: Stroke related to cerebral hemorrhage is major risk for uncontrolled
His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been hypertension.
taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make
him "feel bad". In explaining the need for hypertension
control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places
the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
a. Blindness secondary to cataracts
b. Ac
The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
(UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a
seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankest
placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should because the use of pillows could result in suffocation and would need to be
the nurse implement? removed at the onset of the seizure. The nurse can delegate paddling the side rails
to the UAP
a. Ensure that the UAP has placed the pillows effectively to
protect the client.
b. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the
side rails instead of pillows.
c. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the
UAP completes another ta
An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been Describes life without purpose
taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which
assessment finding requires immediate follow-up Rationale: Cymbalta is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
that is known to increase the risk of suicidal thinking in adolescents and young
a. Describes life without purpose adults with major depressive disorder. B, C and D are side effects
b. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite
c. States is often fatigued and drowsy
d. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is
being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Rationale: An abdominal mass in a client with a family history for ovarian cancer
Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What should be evaluated carefully
information should the nurse include in the client's
teaching plan
a. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
b. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
c. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six
month
d. One additional negative pap smear in six
A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most
important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? Rationale: Suctioning helps to clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which
is critical.
a. Explain how to use communication tools.
b. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
c. Encourage self-care and independence.
d. Demonstrate how to clean tracheostomy site.
,In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, Document the assessment data
the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not
deflate completely during inspiration and the client's Rational: reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration and the
respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should client's respiratory rate is within normal limits.
the nurse implement
a. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
b. Remove the mask to deflate the bag
c. Increase the liter flow of oxygen
d. Document the assessment data
During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the
nurse investigate first? Rationale: The priority is the client whose alarm indicating respiratory apnea that
should be assessed first.
a. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
b. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
c. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
d. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client Check the client for lacerations or fractures
with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse
take first? Rationale: After the client falls, the nurse should immediately assess for the
possibility of injuries and provide first aid as needed
a. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice
b. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance
c. Check the client for lacerations or fractures
d. Asses clients blood sugar level
At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat Inform the anesthesia care provider
cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that
she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to Rationale: Surgical preoperative instruction includes NPO after midnight the day of
avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse surgery to decrease the risk of aspiration should vomiting occur during anesthesia.
take first? While it is possible the C-section will be done on schedule or rescheduled for later
in the day, the anesthesia provider should be notified first.
a. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
b. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
c. Inform the anesthesia care provider
d. Contact the client's obstetrician.
After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the Listen with the bell at the same location
nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if
an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds
take first such as S3 and S4. The nurse listens at the same site using the diaphragm the
diaphragm and bell before moving systematically to the next sites.
a. Side the stethoscope across the sternum.
b. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site
c. Listen with the bell at the same location
d. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor
A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a Medicare
health insurance through her place of employment. Which
agency should the client be referred to by the employee Rationale: Title XVII of the social security Act of 1965 created Medicare Program to
health nurse for health insurance needs? provide medical insurance for person more than 65 years or older, disable or with
permeant kidney failure, WIC provides supplemental nutrition to meet the needs of
a. Woman, Infant, and Children program pregnant of breastfeeding woman, infants and children up to age of 6. Medicaid
b. Medicaid provides financial assistance to pay for medical services for poor older adults, blind,
c. Medicare disable and families with dependent children. COBRA(D) health benefit provisions is
d. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act a limited insurance plan for those who has been laid off or become unemployed.
provision.
A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline Toasted wheat bread and jelly
complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the
nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline? Rationale: Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse instructs
the client to eat a snack such as toast, which contains no dairy products and may
a. Fruit-flavored yogurt. decrease GI symptoms.
b. Cheese and crackers.
c. Cold cereal with skim milk.
d. Toasted wheat bread and jelly
, Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several "I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"
complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the
client is experiencing a complication? Rationale: A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may
occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This
a. "I am having pain in my lower back when I move my complication is usually managed by bedrest, analgesic, and hydration.
legs"
b. "My throat hurts when I swallow"
c. "I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up"
d. I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"
An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which
action should the nurse implement Rationale: This elderly is experiencing symptoms of urinary tract infection. The
nurse should obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen to determine the causative
a. Auscultate for renal bruits agent so an anti-infective agent can be prescribed.
b. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
c. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketone
d. Begin to strain the client's urine.
The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with Foods sweetened with aspartame
phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping
with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are Rationale: Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because ut is
contraindicated for this child? converted to phenylalanine in the body. Additionally, milk and milk products are
contraindicated for children with PKU.
a. Wheat products
b. Foods sweetened with aspartame.
c. High fat foods
d. High calories foods.
Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration
day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a
3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for Rationale: The surgical hand scrub should last for 5 to 10 mints, so the nurse
this client. Which response should the circulating nurse should be directed to continue the vigorous scrub using a reliable agent for the total
provide? duration of 5 mints. It is not necessary to reassign staff (A). The length of the hand
scrub and subsequent scrubs during the day require the same process for the same
a. Ask a more experience nurse to perform that scrub amount of time, (B and C)
since it is the first time of the day
b. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for
surgical hand scrub
c. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes
between cases.
d. Direct the n
Which breakfast selection indicates that the client Bagel with jelly and skim milk
understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary
management of osteoporosis? Rationale: D includes dairy products which contain calcium and does not include
any foods that inhibit calcium absorption. The primary dietary implication of
a. Egg whites, toast and coffee. osteoporosis is the need for increased calcium and reduction in foods that decrease
b. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice. calcium absorption, such as caffeine and excessive fiber.
c. Granola and grapefruit juice
d. Bagel with jelly and skim milk.
The charge nurse of critical care unit informed at beginning An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur who has a
of shift that less than optimal number registered nurses be Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied
working that shift. In planning assignments, which client
should receive most care hours by a registered nurse Rationale: (D) describe the client at the most risk for injury and complications
because of the factor listed. (A) has complete the recovery period form anesthesia
a. A 34 yo admitted today after emergency but requires critical care because of the invasive lines and new abdominal incision.
appendendectomy who has peripheral intravenous (B) is likely to be in excellent physical condition and has one invasive line needed
catheter, Foley catheter. for rehydration. (C) is essentially stable, despite having a chronic condition.
b. A 48 yo marathon runner w/a central venous catheter
experiencing nausea, vomiting due to electrolyte
disturbance following a race.
c. A 63 yo chain s
